Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which position is most appropriate to improve oxygenation?

• A. Supine with legs elevated
• B. High Fowler's position
• C. Prone with pillows under the chest
• D. Side-lying with head flat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High Fowler's position. High Fowler's position is the most appropriate for a client with chronic heart failure experiencing dyspnea and low oxygen saturation. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by maximizing chest expansion and allowing better ventilation. Choice A, supine with legs elevated, may worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Choice C, prone with pillows under the chest, is not suitable for a client experiencing dyspnea as it may further compromise breathing. Choice D, side-lying with head flat, does not facilitate optimal lung expansion and is not the best choice for improving oxygenation in this scenario.

2. When assessing an adolescent with depression, what is the most important question for the nurse to ask?

• A. What is causing your feelings of depression?
• B. Have you ever thought about suicide?
• C. What actions can we take to improve your mood?
• D. Would you like your friends to come over?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Have you ever thought about suicide?' When assessing an adolescent with depression, it is crucial to ask direct questions about suicidal thoughts. This helps determine the severity of the situation, especially if the person has considered or planned to harm themselves. Choice A is not as direct and specific to suicidal ideation. Choice C focuses on improving mood rather than assessing the risk of harm. Choice D is unrelated to assessing suicidal ideation and the severity of the depression.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

4. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Urine output
• D. Hearing acuity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.

5. Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, what should be used to prevent injury to the suture line?

• A. Straw
• B. Spoon
• C. Syringe
• D. Cup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, a cup should be used to prevent injury to the suture line. Utensils such as straws, spoons, droppers, and syringes should be avoided as they can cause trauma to the surgical site. Using a cup reduces the risk of disrupting the sutures and promotes proper healing.

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