a client diagnosed with a herniated disc is prescribed hydrocodoneacetaminophen 10 mg300 mg prn every 4 to 6 hours as the practical nurse pn enters th
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Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. A client diagnosed with a herniated disc is prescribed hydrocodone/acetaminophen 10 mg/300 mg prn every 4 to 6 hours. As the practical nurse (PN) enters the client's room to administer the requested medication, the client is seen talking and laughing with visiting family. What action should the PN take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the PN in this situation is to administer the analgesia as requested by the client. Pain management is based on the client's self-report of pain, which is the most reliable indicator of pain intensity. Analgesics should be given promptly when pain occurs and before it worsens. Following the administration of medication, the PN should discuss the situation with the charge nurse for further guidance or assessment.

2. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Clonidine, a medication used to treat hypertension, can cause a lowering of blood pressure leading to hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring for hypotension is essential to prevent complications such as dizziness, fainting, or falls. Option B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as clonidine typically causes bradycardia or a decreased heart rate. Option C, Dizziness, can occur due to hypotension caused by clonidine. Option D, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect associated with clonidine use.

4. A client is prescribed atorvastatin. The practical nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain and weakness. Atorvastatin is known to potentially cause muscle pain and weakness, which could indicate muscle damage or rhabdomyolysis. This adverse effect should be closely monitored by the practical nurse to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with atorvastatin use. Headache is a less common side effect, hepatotoxicity is rare but serious, and gastrointestinal bleeding is not a common adverse effect of atorvastatin.

5. The practical nurse is assigned a client on digoxin therapy. Which finding is likely to predispose this client to developing digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypokalemia predisposes a client on digoxin to digoxin toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, bradycardia, and atrioventricular (AV) dissociation. Therefore, assessment of serum potassium levels and prompt correction of hypokalemia are crucial interventions for clients taking digoxin.

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A client is admitted to a long-term care facility, and the nurse and a new employee are conducting medication reconciliation. The nurse notes that oxybutynin has been prescribed. The nurse realizes the new employee understands the drug's effect if the new employee explains that this medication is prescribed to treat which condition?
A client is taking levodopa-carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurse should include which instruction when educating the client about this medication?

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