a client diagnosed with a herniated disc is prescribed hydrocodoneacetaminophen 10 mg300 mg prn every 4 to 6 hours as the practical nurse pn enters th
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Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. A client diagnosed with a herniated disc is prescribed hydrocodone/acetaminophen 10 mg/300 mg prn every 4 to 6 hours. As the practical nurse (PN) enters the client's room to administer the requested medication, the client is seen talking and laughing with visiting family. What action should the PN take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the PN in this situation is to administer the analgesia as requested by the client. Pain management is based on the client's self-report of pain, which is the most reliable indicator of pain intensity. Analgesics should be given promptly when pain occurs and before it worsens. Following the administration of medication, the PN should discuss the situation with the charge nurse for further guidance or assessment.

2. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed etanercept is to rotate injection sites to prevent irritation and ensure proper absorption. Changing sites will help prevent skin irritation and ensure that the medication is absorbed effectively. This practice also reduces the risk of injection site reactions and discomfort. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote optimal medication delivery and minimize adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because etanercept can be taken with or without food, and it is not specifically indicated to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific association between etanercept and sunlight exposure. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to notify the healthcare provider of signs of infection, this is not the primary instruction related to the administration of etanercept.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.

5. The healthcare provider has prescribed an influenza vaccine for a 74-year-old client before discharge. Which client condition would prompt the practical nurse to consult with the charge nurse rather than administer the vaccine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of an egg allergy. The influenza vaccine may contain a small amount of egg protein. According to the CDC, individuals with a severe allergy to any component of the vaccine, including egg protein, should not receive the influenza vaccine. Therefore, if the client has a history of an allergy to eggs, the practical nurse should not administer the vaccine and consult with the charge nurse for further guidance, as it is a contraindication. The other conditions listed do not require consultation before administering the influenza vaccine.

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