HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. A client collapses while showering and is found by the nurse while making rounds. The client is not breathing and does not have a palpable pulse. The nurse obtains the Automated External Defibrillator (AED). What action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Follow the prompts of the AED
- B. Apply the AED pads to the client’s chest
- C. Wipe the client’s chest dry
- D. Move the client from the bathroom
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Applying the AED pads is the immediate next step after obtaining the AED in a cardiac arrest situation. Placing the pads correctly on the client's chest is crucial for the AED to analyze the heart rhythm accurately and deliver a shock if needed. Following the prompts of the AED comes after the pads are in place. Wiping the client's chest dry or moving the client from the bathroom are not priorities at this critical moment and may delay life-saving interventions.
2. A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client’s serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Total calcium 9 mg/dl (2.25 mmol/L SI)
- B. Creatinine 4 mg/dl (354 micromol/L SI)
- C. Phosphate 4 mg/dl (1.293 mmol/L SI)
- D. Fasting glucose 95 mg/dl (5.3 mmol/L SI)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.
3. A young female adult wanders into the Emergency Department. She is disheveled and confused and states, 'My date must have put something in my drink. He took my car, and I think he raped me. I don't exactly remember, but I know he hurt me.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Did you try to resist or fight back when you felt uncomfortable?
- B. He hurt you? Can you elaborate on what happened?
- C. It is okay to cry, but first, let's address your injuries and the situation.
- D. Yes, I can see. Tell me more about what you remember.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the patient to share more about what she remembers. This approach helps gather crucial information, supports the patient in a non-judgmental manner, and allows the nurse to provide appropriate care. Choice A has been revised to be more sensitive by asking about resistance when feeling uncomfortable rather than placing blame. Choice B has been adjusted to show empathy and request more details without questioning the patient's account. Choice C, although empathetic, does not address the immediate need to collect information and support the patient.
4. Which techniques should be used to administer an intradermal (ID) injection for a Mantoux test to screen for tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply.
- A. Observe for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected
- B. Select an ID site using the volar surface of the forearm
- C. Use a 26 or 27-gauge needle with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches on a 1 ml calibrated syringe
- D. Ensure that the needle is inserted into the skin with the bevel up
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Observing for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected is a proper technique for an ID injection. This is important to confirm the correct placement of the injection. Choice B is correct because the recommended site for an ID injection for a Mantoux test is the volar surface of the forearm. Choice C is incorrect because the standard needle size for an ID injection is usually 26 or 27 gauge with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches, not 25 gauge with a length of 1/2 inch. Choice D is incorrect because the needle should be inserted into the skin with the bevel facing up, not down.
5. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only
- B. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription
- C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube
- D. Offer the infant Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining intravenous fluid therapy is crucial for managing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances caused by the vomiting in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is not appropriate as it does not address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances adequately. Providing Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube (Choice C) may not be sufficient to manage the severe fluid and electrolyte losses caused by the condition. Offering Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours (Choice D) may not be as effective as maintaining intravenous fluid therapy, especially in cases where rapid rehydration is necessary.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access