HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. What is the most common side effect of diuretics such as furosemide (Lasix)?
- A. Hypokalemia.
- B. Hyperkalemia.
- C. Hypernatremia.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' Diuretics like furosemide increase the excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia as a common side effect. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is the opposite condition characterized by high potassium levels, which is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (choice C) is increased sodium levels, while hyponatremia (choice D) is decreased sodium levels, neither of which are the most common side effects of furosemide. Therefore, choice A is the best answer.
2. The client admitted with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is:
- A. Decreased blood flow.
- B. Increased blood flow.
- C. Slow blood flow.
- D. Thrombus formation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased blood flow.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), there is a narrowing or blockage of blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow to the extremities. This decreased blood flow results in inadequate oxygen supply to the muscles, causing pain, especially during physical activity when oxygen demand increases. Choice B, 'Increased blood flow,' is incorrect because PVD is characterized by impaired blood circulation rather than increased flow. Choice C, 'Slow blood flow,' is not precise as PVD involves a more significant reduction in blood flow. Choice D, 'Thrombus formation,' is related to the formation of blood clots within vessels, which can be a complication of PVD but is not its main characteristic.
3. When planning activities for a socialization group for older residents of a long-term facility, what information would be most useful for the nurse?
- A. The length of time each resident has resided at the facility.
- B. A brief description of each resident's family life.
- C. The age of each resident.
- D. The usual activity patterns of each resident.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most useful information for the nurse when planning activities for a socialization group for older residents of a long-term facility would be the usual activity patterns of each resident. An older person's level of activity is a determining factor in adjustment to aging, as described by the Activity Theory of Aging. By understanding the usual activity patterns of each resident, the nurse can tailor activities that cater to their interests and abilities, promoting social engagement and overall well-being. The other options, such as the length of time residing at the facility, a brief description of family life, or the age of each resident, may provide some insights but do not directly relate to planning activities that support adjustment to aging and socialization within the group.
4. A client who has just undergone a skin biopsy is listening to discharge instructions from the nurse. The nurse determines that the client has misunderstood the directions if the client indicates that as part of aftercare he plans to:
- A. Use the antibiotic ointment as prescribed
- B. Return in 7 days to have the sutures removed
- C. Apply cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes
- D. Call the physician if excessive drainage from the wound occurs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes is not a recommended aftercare practice for a skin biopsy. After a skin biopsy, it is important to keep the dressing dry and in place for a minimum of 8 hours. Choice A is correct as using the antibiotic ointment as prescribed is a common post-biopsy instruction to prevent infection. Choice B is also correct as returning in 7 days to have the sutures removed is part of the typical follow-up care after a skin biopsy. Choice D is correct as it is important to call the physician if excessive drainage from the wound occurs to prevent complications.
5. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about dietary restrictions by the nurse. Which of the following food items should the client avoid?
- A. Apples
- B. Bananas
- C. Chicken
- D. Rice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which should be limited in clients with chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples (choice A), chicken (choice C), and rice (choice D) are not typically restricted in clients with chronic renal failure. Apples and rice are lower in potassium, while chicken is a good source of lean protein, which is usually encouraged in these clients to meet their protein needs without excess potassium intake.
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