HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. Following a craniotomy, why did the nurse position the client in low Fowler's position?
- A. To promote comfort.
- B. To promote drainage from the operation site.
- C. To promote thoracic expansion.
- D. To prevent circulatory overload.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Positioning the client in low Fowler's position after a craniotomy is essential to promote drainage from the operation site. This position helps prevent fluid accumulation, facilitates the removal of excess fluid or blood, and aids in the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because comfort, while important, is not the primary reason for this specific positioning. Choice C is incorrect as thoracic expansion is not the main concern following a craniotomy. Choice D is incorrect as circulatory overload is not typically addressed by positioning in low Fowler's position post-craniotomy.
2. The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been 'wetting the bed' since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Reassure the father that it is normal for a child to wet the bed after a traumatic event
- B. Inform the father that nocturnal emissions are abnormal and his son is developmentally delayed
- C. Inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma
- D. Refer the father and the client to a psychologist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bedwetting after trauma, such as losing a parent, is common in children. The nurse should inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma. Reassurance and understanding are essential in addressing the child's emotional needs during this difficult time. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on puberty rather than trauma as the underlying cause. Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about nocturnal emissions and developmental delay. Choice D is premature as the first step should be to provide education and support before considering a referral to a psychologist.
3. After an adult had an indwelling catheter removed, the nurse catheterizes them as ordered and obtains 200 cc of urine. What is the best interpretation of this finding?
- A. Is voiding normally.
- B. Has urinary retention.
- C. Has developed renal failure.
- D. Needs an indwelling catheter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The finding of obtaining 200 cc of urine after catheterization indicates urinary retention, as the bladder did not empty completely after the first void. This situation may require further assessment and intervention to address the issue of incomplete bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because voiding normally would indicate a larger amount of urine output. Choice C is incorrect as renal failure would typically present with other signs and symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of urinary retention does not necessarily mean the need for an indwelling catheter immediately.
4. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?
- A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
- B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
- C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
- D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.
5. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased oxygen saturation.
- B. Decreased respiratory rate.
- C. Absence of audible wheezing.
- D. Improved exercise tolerance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.
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