Free HESI Fundamentals of Nursing practice for HESI Fundamentals Practice Test (HESI RN). Answer 67 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and
The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been 'wetting the bed' since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bedwetting after trauma, such as losing a parent, is common in children. The nurse should inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma. Reassurance and understanding are essential in addressing the child's emotional needs during this difficult time. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on puberty rather than trauma as the underlying cause. Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about nocturnal emissions and developmental delay. Choice D is premature as the first step should be to provide education and support before considering a referral to a psychologist.
After surgery, a patient has decreased cardiac output. What is a likely observation by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A decrease in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine output. The kidneys rely on adequate blood supply to filter waste and produce urine. Therefore, a decreased urine output is a common observation when cardiac output is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output; flushing of the skin is more related to vasodilation, and hyperventilation is not directly linked to decreased cardiac output.
To avoid nerve injury, what location should the nurse select to administer a 3 mL IM injection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The ventrogluteal site is the preferred location for administering large volume IM injections to avoid nerve injury. This site is situated away from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of complications associated with injecting into other areas. The ventrogluteal site allows for deep muscle penetration and is recommended for injections over 2 mL in volume to ensure proper dispersion and absorption of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the outer upper quadrant of the buttock is not the recommended site for large volume injections, two inches below the acromion process is a location for a deltoid injection, and the vastus lateralis is typically used for smaller volume injections.
A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.
The healthcare provider is preparing an older client for discharge. Which method is best for the provider to use when evaluating the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Direct observation of the client performing the skill is the most effective method to assess the client's ability to independently change the dressing. This allows the healthcare provider to evaluate the client's technique, understanding, and readiness to perform the task at home. Choices A, B, and C are not as reliable as directly observing the client performing the dressing change. Determining the client's feelings may not accurately reflect their ability, asking the client to write about the procedure may not demonstrate their practical skills, and having a family member evaluate might not provide an accurate assessment of the client's ability.
When assisting an older adult client in preparing to take a tub bath, which nursing action is most important?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial nursing action when assisting an older adult client with a tub bath is to check the bath water temperature. This step is essential to prevent burns from hot water or chilling from water that is too cold. Ensuring the water temperature is safe is a critical aspect of promoting the client's safety and comfort during the bathing process.
When caring for a client with a chest tube, which intervention is most important?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial intervention when caring for a client with a chest tube is to ensure that the chest tube is connected to a water-seal drainage system (D). This system helps maintain proper lung expansion and prevents complications. Keeping the drainage system at chest level (A) is important to facilitate drainage, but not as critical as ensuring the connection to the drainage system. Clamping the chest tube (B) is unnecessary and can lead to serious issues. Stripping the chest tube (C) is an outdated practice and can cause harm rather than benefit.
While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.
A male client is on contact precautions due to an infected draining wound and is being discharged home. The client lives at home with his wife and their adolescent daughter. What discharge instruction should the nurse include for the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is on contact precautions due to an infected draining wound, it is important to prevent contact with wound secretions. Therefore, disposing of soiled dressings in securely closed plastic bags helps contain and prevent the spread of infectious material, reducing the risk of transmission to others in the household.
The healthcare provider who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the provider take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action is for the provider not to administer the medication and to document the reason. In the case of a minor, parental consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. It is important to follow legal and ethical guidelines to ensure the adolescent's well-being and rights are protected. Choice A is incorrect because simply reviewing the chart does not address the lack of parental consent. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining parental consent should be done before medication administration. Choice D is incorrect as notifying the adolescent is not the appropriate action in this situation, as parental consent is legally required for a minor's medical treatment.
A high school senior is complaining of a persistent cough and admits to smoking 10 to 15 cigarettes daily for the past year. He is convinced that he is hopelessly addicted to tobacco since he tried unsuccessfully to quit smoking last week. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Adolescents are particularly influenced by peers, so associating with non-smokers may help the student quit smoking. By being surrounded by non-smokers, the student is less likely to feel pressured to smoke and may be encouraged to adopt healthier behaviors. This intervention leverages the power of social influence to support smoking cessation efforts and create a more conducive environment for the student to quit smoking. Choices B, C, and D do not address the social aspect of smoking behavior and the influence of peers on smoking habits, making them less effective interventions in this case.
A client is admitted with a stage four pressure ulcer that has a black, hardened surface and a light-pink wound bed with malodorous green drainage. Which dressing is best for the nurse to use first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best initial dressing for a stage four pressure ulcer with necrotic tissue is a wet-to-moist dressing. This dressing helps to provide moisture, soften necrotic tissue, and prepare the wound bed for healing. It promotes autolytic debridement and can help manage malodorous drainage. Once the necrotic tissue is loosened, other advanced dressings like hydrogel or alginate may be used in the wound bed to facilitate healing.
When assisting a client with right-sided hemiplegia to get into a wheelchair, how should the nurse position the wheelchair?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Positioning the wheelchair on the left side of the bed facing the foot of the bed is the correct approach when assisting a client with right-sided hemiplegia. Placing the wheelchair on the left side allows the client to stand on their unaffected foot and pivot to sit down safely. This positioning facilitates a smoother transfer and helps maintain the client's stability during the process. Choice B is incorrect because positioning the wheelchair on the right side facing the head of the bed would make it challenging for the client to transfer due to their right-sided hemiplegia. Choice C is incorrect as placing the wheelchair perpendicular to the bed on the right side may not provide the necessary space and angle for a safe transfer. Choice D is incorrect as facing the bed on the left side of the bed does not provide the optimal position for the client to transfer from the bed to the wheelchair effectively.
A client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break to smoke a cigarette outside and states, 'I want to go outside now and smoke. It takes forever to get anything done here!' Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break, it is essential to address their concerns effectively. Reviewing the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client provides concrete information, helps manage the client's expectations, and may alleviate their frustration. This intervention promotes transparency and empowers the client by clarifying the timing of their desired break, fostering a therapeutic and collaborative nurse-client relationship. Encouraging the client to use a nicotine patch (Choice A) does not address the client's immediate frustration with the break schedule. Reassuring the client about another break (Choice B) may temporarily placate them but does not address the underlying issue. Having the client leave the unit with another staff member (Choice C) may not be feasible or appropriate at that moment and does not address the client's concerns.
A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An elevated AST level following chest pain and shortness of breath is suggestive of myocardial infarction. AST is released from damaged heart muscle cells during a heart attack, indicating cardiac involvement. This enzyme is not specific to liver disease, gallbladder disease, or skeletal muscle injury in this clinical context.
Which client is most likely to be at risk for spiritual distress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. In Roman Catholicism, abortion is strictly prohibited, so a Roman Catholic woman considering this procedure may experience spiritual distress due to conflicts with her religious beliefs. This conflict can lead to emotional and psychological turmoil, affecting her spiritual well-being. It is essential for healthcare providers to recognize and address such conflicts with sensitivity and understanding to provide holistic care.
A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Kussmaul respirations (B) are a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and are expected in this condition. While oliguria (A), fruity odor on the breath (C), and elevated blood glucose level (D) are also signs of DKA, Kussmaul respirations are more specific and critical to the condition, indicating severe metabolic acidosis.
A client with a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Avoid foods high in iodine.' Clients with hyperthyroidism should avoid foods high in iodine to prevent exacerbation of their condition. Iodine is an essential component in thyroid hormone production, and excessive iodine intake can worsen hyperthyroidism symptoms. Taking medication with meals (B) can interfere with the absorption of certain thyroid medications. Monitoring weight daily (C) is more relevant for conditions that may lead to weight changes like hypothyroidism. Decreasing fluid intake (D) is not a standard recommendation for hyperthyroidism unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider.
The client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary action for the nurse is to assess the skin under the ice pack to check for any potential thermal injury. This assessment is crucial to ensure the client's safety. Once the skin assessment is done and no harm is found, the nurse can proceed with other necessary actions such as providing instructions to the client or replacing the covering with fresh ice.
Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. Which action will the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, if no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting the catheter, it is likely that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the first catheter in place will help locate the meatus more easily when attempting the second catheterization. This approach ensures correct placement of the catheter in the bladder and minimizes the risk of causing unnecessary discomfort or trauma to the patient.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Orthopnea (D) is most consistent with left-sided heart failure. It is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up or standing. Dependent edema (A), ascites (B), and nocturia (C) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema refers to swelling due to fluid accumulation, ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and nocturia is the excessive need to urinate during the night, all of which are more indicative of right-sided heart failure.
The nurse finds a client crying behind a locked bathroom door. The client will not open the door. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When encountering a client in distress, the nurse's initial response should be to communicate with the client to assess the situation and provide support. By talking to the client and attempting to find out the reason for their distress, the nurse can offer appropriate assistance and ensure the client's well-being. This action prioritizes the client's emotional needs and helps establish a therapeutic relationship, which is essential in nursing care.
The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Performing range-of-motion exercises is essential in preventing contractures, which are common complications of immobility. These exercises help maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength, reducing the risk of contractures that can lead to functional limitations or pain for the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fluid intake does not prevent immobility complications, but it can lead to dehydration. Massaging the client's legs does not directly address the prevention of immobility complications like contractures. Turning the client from side to back every shift is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address complications of immobility like contractures.
In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.
A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the priority intervention for a client with pulmonary edema to improve oxygenation and address respiratory distress. Adequate oxygenation is essential to support vital organ function. Administering furosemide intravenously, inserting a Foley catheter to monitor urine output, and positioning the client in a high Fowler's position are important interventions but are secondary to ensuring optimal oxygenation in this client with pulmonary edema.
What action should be taken when adding sterile liquids to a sterile field?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
If a sterile field becomes wet or damp during a procedure, it is considered contaminated as moisture can allow organisms to wick from the surface and compromise the sterility of the field. It is essential to maintain the integrity of the sterile field to prevent infections and ensure patient safety.
What type of technique should the nurse observe when preparing to insert an indwelling catheter?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When inserting an indwelling catheter, the nurse must observe sterile technique to minimize the risk of infections. Sterile technique involves using sterile equipment and maintaining a sterile field to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract.
Before administering a client's medication, the nurse assesses a change in the client's condition and decides to withhold the medication until consulting with the healthcare provider. After consultation with the healthcare provider, the dose of the medication is changed, and the nurse administers the newly prescribed dose an hour later than the originally scheduled time. What action should the nurse take in response to this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse acted appropriately by withholding the medication, consulting with the healthcare provider, and administering the newly prescribed dose, albeit with a delay. The correct course of action for the nurse is to document all these events in the nurse's notes. Documenting the sequence of actions taken is crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the client's care, ensuring transparency, and providing essential information for future reference and continuity of care. Notifying the charge nurse or submitting a medication variance report may not be necessary as the situation was managed appropriately, and discarding the original medication administration record is not recommended as it is part of the client's medical record and should be kept for documentation purposes.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Dry mucous membranes (D) are a common clinical finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In dehydration, there is insufficient fluid in the body, leading to dry mucous membranes due to decreased saliva production. Bounding pulse (A) is associated with fluid volume excess, not deficit. Bradycardia (B) and oliguria (C) are not typical clinical findings of fluid volume deficit but may be seen in fluid volume excess or other conditions.
The client with cholecystitis is being instructed on dietary choices. Which meal best meets the dietary needs of this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cholecystitis requires a low-fat diet to reduce stress on the gallbladder. The meal of broiled fish, green beans, and an apple aligns with this dietary recommendation by providing lean protein and low-fat, high-fiber foods that are easier for the body to digest, making it the most suitable choice for a client with cholecystitis.
The healthcare provider plans to foster a therapeutic relationship with the patient utilizing therapeutic techniques of communication. It is most important that the provider:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In fostering a therapeutic relationship, demonstrating respect is essential as it helps the patient feel valued and understood. Respectful communication contributes to building trust and a safe environment for open and honest discussions.
One week after being told that she has terminal cancer with a life expectancy of 3 weeks, a female client tells the nurse, 'I think I will plan a big party for all my friends.' How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Setting goals that bring pleasure is appropriate and should be encouraged by the nurse. Choice A is discouraging and focuses on limitations. Choice B jumps to a conclusion and is not in line with the client's statement. Choice D dictates what the client should be doing, which is not respectful of the client's autonomy. Therefore, the most appropriate response is C, as it acknowledges the client's wishes and provides positive reinforcement without perpetuating denial.
What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide a client with a new colostomy regarding stoma care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Measuring the stoma using a stoma guide (C) is crucial as it ensures that the appliance fits properly, which is essential for preventing skin irritation and leakage. Proper measurement helps in selecting the right size of the appliance, promoting comfort and optimal stoma care. In contrast, cleansing with hydrogen peroxide (A), applying a moisture barrier cream (B), and using a dry gauze pad (D) are important but not as critical as ensuring the correct fit of the stoma appliance.
After a needle stick occurs while removing the cap from a sterile needle, what action should the individual take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario described, the correct action after a needle stick injury is to discard the contaminated needle safely and choose a new sterile needle to continue the procedure. This step helps prevent potential transmission of infections and ensures the safety of both the individual and the patient. Disinfecting the needle with an alcohol swab is not adequate to address the risk of infection transmission. While completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor are important, the immediate action should be to replace the contaminated needle with a new sterile one to prevent any potential harm.
The healthcare provider is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low serum albumin level is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. Serum albumin levels reflect long-term protein status, and a significantly lowered level usually indicates ongoing protein deficiency. Other laboratory values, such as serum transferrin, hemoglobin, or cholesterol levels, may be affected by various factors and conditions, but serum albumin is a more specific marker for chronic protein malnutrition.
Twenty minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice (D) describes thermal adaptation, which occurs 20 to 30 minutes after heat application. The body's receptors adjust to the constant heat exposure, leading to a decreased sensation of warmth. Choices (A) and (B) provide inaccurate information regarding the situation, while choice (C) is not physiologically sound and could potentially harm the client by increasing the temperature unnecessarily.
Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care for a client at high risk for the development of postoperative thrombus formation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Thrombus formation is a risk for clients who are immobile postoperatively. Encouraging frequent ambulation helps to prevent stasis in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of thrombus formation. This intervention promotes circulation and prevents blood clot formation, making it the most important intervention in this situation.
During a urethral catheterization on a female, where would the healthcare provider observe the urethral meatus after separating the labia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct location of the urethral meatus in females is between the clitoris and the vaginal orifice. When performing a urethral catheterization, it is crucial to identify this anatomical landmark for correct insertion of the catheter. Choice A is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not located between the vaginal orifice and the anus. Choice C is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not located just above the clitoris. Choice D is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not within the vaginal canal.
While the nurse is discharging an adult woman who was hospitalized for 6 days for treatment of pneumonia and reviewing the prescribed medications, the client appears anxious. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, the most important action for the nurse to implement is to instruct the client to repeat the medication plan. By using the teach-back method, the nurse can ensure the client's understanding of the prescribed medications and address any concerns or anxieties the client may have. This approach promotes patient engagement, active participation, and retention of important information, ultimately enhancing medication adherence and safety.
A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best action for the nurse is to determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows. By incorporating familiar bedtime rituals that do not compromise the client's safety, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the overall quality of care provided to the client.
The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught pursed-lip breathing by the nurse. What is the purpose of this technique?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pursed-lip breathing is used to increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled (C) in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). By doing so, it helps prevent air trapping and enhances gas exchange, ultimately improving respiratory efficiency. While removing secretions (A) and reducing air trapping (B) can be associated benefits to some extent, the primary goal of pursed-lip breathing is to optimize carbon dioxide elimination and enhance breathing mechanics. Slowing the respiratory rate (D) is not the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing.
The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important action is to ensure that an accurate BP reading is obtained. The nurse should reassess the blood pressure with the correct size cuff (B) to obtain an accurate reading. Postponing reassessment (A) could lead to inaccurate results. While (C and D) are important actions for education and quality improvement, they are not as critical as obtaining an accurate blood pressure reading in this situation.
The healthcare provider receives a report that a client with an indwelling urinary catheter has an output of 150 mL for the previous 6-hour shift. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first intervention should be to check the drainage tubing for a kink. This step is crucial as any kinks in the tubing could obstruct urine flow, leading to a decreased output. By ensuring the tubing is free from any obstructions, the healthcare provider can address a potential mechanical issue causing the low output before considering other interventions. Reviewing the intake and output record may provide valuable information but should come after ensuring the tubing is clear. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done later if needed, but the immediate concern is to check for any obstructions. Giving the client water to drink may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, but addressing a possible kink in the tubing takes precedence.
An elderly patient has been living in a nursing home for several years. The nursing staff has begun to notice a change in her behavior. All of the following are symptoms of depression except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hyperorality is not typically a symptom of depression. Symptoms of depression often include changes in sleep patterns, eating patterns with weight loss, and excessive fatigue. Hyperorality, which refers to the tendency to examine, chew, or ingest non-nutritive substances, is not a common symptom associated with depression.
During evacuation of a group of clients from a medical unit because of a fire, the nurse observes an ambulatory client walking alone toward the stairway at the end of the hall. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a fire evacuation, it is crucial for ambulatory clients to be reminded to walk carefully down the stairs. This helps ensure the safety of the client by preventing falls or injuries during the evacuation process. Directing the client to proceed cautiously down the stairs until reaching a lower floor provides necessary guidance to promote a safe evacuation process. Choice A is incorrect because assigning unlicensed assistive personnel to transport the client via a wheelchair may delay the evacuation process and increase the risk of injury. Choice C is incorrect as it distracts the ambulatory client from evacuating safely by involving them in assisting another client. Choice D is incorrect as opening fire doors may not be the most appropriate action at that moment; prioritizing safe evacuation procedures for ambulatory clients is essential.
What action should the nurse take after applying gloves to irrigate a client's indwelling urinary catheter using an open technique?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After applying gloves to irrigate an indwelling urinary catheter using an open technique, the next step for the nurse is to draw up the irrigating solution into the syringe. This step is crucial as it ensures that the solution is ready to be instilled through the catheter to maintain its patency and prevent blockages. Option A is incorrect as emptying the client's urinary drainage bag is not the immediate next step in the irrigation process. Option C is incorrect as securing the client's catheter to the drainage tubing is not necessary at this stage. Option D is incorrect as the question pertains to the action immediately after applying gloves and does not involve instilling the irrigating solution yet.
After an adult had an indwelling catheter removed, the nurse catheterizes them as ordered and obtains 200 cc of urine. What is the best interpretation of this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The finding of obtaining 200 cc of urine after catheterization indicates urinary retention, as the bladder did not empty completely after the first void. This situation may require further assessment and intervention to address the issue of incomplete bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because voiding normally would indicate a larger amount of urine output. Choice C is incorrect as renal failure would typically present with other signs and symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of urinary retention does not necessarily mean the need for an indwelling catheter immediately.
When measuring vital signs, the healthcare provider observes that a client is using accessory neck muscles during respirations. What follow-up action should the healthcare provider take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Observing a client using accessory neck muscles during respiration indicates respiratory distress. The priority action should be to measure oxygen saturation to assess the adequacy of oxygenation. This intervention provides crucial information about the client's respiratory status and helps guide further assessment and interventions.
A male client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops cryptococcal meningitis and tells the nurse he does not want to be resuscitated if his breathing stops. What action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client expresses the desire to not be resuscitated, it is essential to inquire if this decision has been discussed with their healthcare provider. This is important to ensure that the client's wishes are appropriately documented and legally binding through the healthcare provider's guidance. It is crucial that healthcare decisions, especially those involving life-saving measures, are well-communicated and documented to respect the client's autonomy and ensure their wishes are honored. Option A is not the best action as it does not address the need to verify discussion with the healthcare provider. Option C is incorrect as it overemphasizes the need for a notarized advance directive, which may not be immediately feasible or necessary in this urgent situation. Option D is not the most appropriate action at this time since the immediate focus should be on clarifying if the decision has been communicated with the healthcare provider.
After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should the nurse take next when administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) connected to suction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After ensuring the correct placement of the NGT, the nurse should flush the tube with water to prevent any obstructions and ensure proper medication delivery. Flushing the tube is essential before, after, and in between each medication administration. Clamping the tube for 20 minutes should be done after all medications are administered to prevent clogging. Administering medications as prescribed and preparing medications by crushing tablets and dissolving them in sterile water should only be done after the tube has been appropriately flushed to maintain its patency and effectiveness.
When bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years, which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years is to gently retract the foreskin to cleanse the penis. This is important to ensure proper hygiene and prevent the accumulation of bacteria that can lead to infections. It is not advisable to defer perineal care because of the child's age, as hygiene is crucial at any age. Asking the parents about the circumcision status may not be relevant during routine perineal care. Reminding the child to clean his genital area is not as effective as directly cleaning the area during bathing.
Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor carefully for a client who has had an NG tube for suctioning for the past week?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should carefully monitor serum sodium levels for a client with an NG tube on suction for an extended period due to potential fluid loss and the risk of developing hyponatremia, an electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia can occur as a result of continual suctioning leading to fluid loss, making it crucial to monitor sodium levels to prevent complications associated with low sodium levels. Monitoring white blood cell count, albumin, or calcium is not directly related to the impact of NG tube suction on fluid and electrolyte balance, so these values are not the priority in this scenario.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most indicative of this diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Epigastric pain that radiates to the back (A) is the hallmark assessment finding of acute pancreatitis. The pancreas lies retroperitoneally in the upper abdomen, so inflammation often causes severe epigastric pain that radiates through to the back. While abdominal pain with guarding (B), nausea and vomiting (C), and increased bowel sounds (D) can also be present in acute pancreatitis, they are less specific and may be seen in various other gastrointestinal conditions. Therefore, the most indicative finding for acute pancreatitis is epigastric pain that radiates to the back.
The healthcare provider is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A lactating woman (B) has the greatest need for additional protein intake. Lactation increases the metabolic demands for protein to support milk production, making it essential for the mother to have a higher protein intake. While clients in choices A, C, and D also require protein for various reasons, they do not have the same increased protein demands as a lactating woman. Choice A, a college-age track runner with a sprained ankle, may need protein for tissue repair but not at the level required during lactation. Choice C, a school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes, may benefit from protein for overall health but does not have the same increased protein needs as a lactating woman. Choice D, an elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer, may need protein for healing but not to the extent required by a lactating woman.
During the insertion of a nasogastric tube (NGT), the client begins to cough and gag. What action should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client begins to cough and gag during the insertion of a nasogastric tube, withdrawing the tube slightly and pausing is the appropriate action. This technique helps prevent further irritation, gives the client a moment to recover, and allows for a smoother continuation of the insertion process. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the client to rest without adjusting the tube position might not address the issue. Choice B is incorrect as removing the tube without addressing the cause of coughing and gagging may lead to repeated discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as continuing to insert the tube while the client is experiencing difficulties can increase discomfort and potential complications.
The caregiver learns the use of a gait belt from the nurse for a woman with right-sided weakness. The caregiver demonstrates the skill. Which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned how to perform this procedure correctly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Standing on the weak side of the client and holding the gait belt from the back provides better security and support during ambulation, reducing the risk of falls. This positioning allows the caregiver to offer stability and assistance without interfering with the client's movement, ensuring safe ambulation for the client with right-sided weakness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal support and security needed for a client with right-sided weakness. Standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back is the most effective way to assist the client while minimizing the risk of falls.
What information should the nurse offer a client who uses herbal therapies to supplement their diet and manage common ailments about the general use of herbal supplements?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is essential for clients using herbal therapies to obtain herbs from manufacturers with a history of quality control for their supplements. This recommendation is crucial because quality control processes help in maintaining the purity and effectiveness of the herbal supplements. Option A is incorrect as it provides a negative and inaccurate generalization about herbs. Option B is also incorrect as there is existing evidence on the safety and efficacy of certain herbal supplements. Option D is not the most relevant information to offer initially to a client seeking advice on the general use of herbal supplements.
A male healthcare provider is assigned to care for a female Muslim client. When the provider offers to bathe the client, the client requests that a female healthcare provider perform this task. How should the male healthcare provider respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most culturally sensitive response is for the male healthcare provider to ask one of the female healthcare providers to bathe the client. This approach respects the client's cultural and spiritual preferences by ensuring that their modesty and beliefs are honored during the care process. Choice A is incorrect as it puts the responsibility on the client to seek help, while the provider should take the initiative to arrange for appropriate care. Choice C is incorrect as it delays the assistance unnecessarily. Choice D, although helpful in maintaining modesty, does not address the client's request for a female healthcare provider to perform the task.
An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.
What instruction should be provided for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA who has an order for contact precautions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA under contact precautions is to don a gown and gloves when entering the client's room. This precaution is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA and protect both the client and the healthcare worker from potential infection. Choice A is incorrect because visitors should not be restricted solely based on contact precautions. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sterile gloves is not necessary, standard precautions with regular gloves are sufficient. Choice C is incorrect because the client wearing a mask is not a standard practice for contact precautions; it is the healthcare worker who should take preventive measures.
When entering the room of an adult male, the nurse finds that the client is very anxious. Before providing care, what action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before providing care to an anxious client, it is crucial for the nurse to first re-assess the client's situation. By re-assessing, the nurse can understand the underlying cause of the client's anxiety, which will help in tailoring appropriate care interventions. Re-assessment ensures that care provided is individualized and addresses the client's specific needs, promoting effective and client-centered care delivery. Diverting the client's attention (Choice A) may not address the root cause of the anxiety. Calling for additional help (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations but should not be the first action. Documenting the planned action (Choice C) should come after re-assessing the client's situation to ensure accurate documentation based on the current assessment.
When assessing for orthostatic hypotension during blood pressure measurement, what action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing for orthostatic hypotension, the initial step is to position the client supine for a few minutes. This allows the body to adjust to the supine position before assessing blood pressure changes that may indicate orthostatic hypotension. By observing the blood pressure after the client has rested supine, the nurse can accurately assess for any drop in blood pressure upon standing, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the initial step in assessing for orthostatic hypotension, which is ensuring the client is positioned correctly to detect blood pressure changes upon standing.
A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for varying levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario where a nurse administers a medication outside the prescribed parameters, the immediate action should be to assess the client for any potential side effects of the medication. This is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. By promptly assessing for side effects, the nurse can address any adverse reactions promptly and provide necessary interventions. Once the client's safety is ensured, documenting the client's responses, completing a medication error report, and assessing pain relief can follow as part of the broader response to the medication error. Choice B is not the first priority because the immediate concern is the potential harm from the incorrect dose. Choice C is also important but comes after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D focuses on the outcome rather than the immediate need to address any side effects of the medication.
When evaluating the effectiveness of a client's nursing care, the nurse first reviews the expected outcomes identified in the plan of care. What action should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After reviewing the expected outcomes identified in the plan of care, the nurse's next step should be to determine if these outcomes were realistic. This assessment helps in understanding if the goals set were achievable and appropriate for the client's condition before proceeding to compare them with current client data or modifying nursing interventions. By verifying the realism of the expected outcomes, the nurse ensures a solid foundation for further evaluation and adjustment of the care plan. Option B is incorrect because obtaining current client data comes after assessing the realism of the expected outcomes. Option C is incorrect because modifying nursing interventions should be based on the assessment of the expected outcomes' realism. Option D is incorrect as reviewing professional standards of care is important but not the immediate next step after assessing the expected outcomes' realism.
How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min x 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml x 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.
Which assessment data indicates the need for the nurse to include the problem 'Risk for falls' in a client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The administration of opioid analgesics can impair balance and increase the risk of falls, justifying the inclusion of 'Risk for falls' in the client's care plan. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk of falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate a risk for falls, but the direct influence of opioid analgesics on balance is more immediate. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, while important, is not a direct indicator of the immediate risk for falls associated with opioid analgesic use.
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