HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

HESI RN

1. An older male client with a history of diabetes mellitus, chronic gout, and osteoarthritis comes to the clinic with a bag of medication bottles. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

A. Identify pills in the bag
B. Review the client's medication schedule
C. Assess the client's symptoms
D. Educate the client about proper medication usage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify pills in the bag first. This is essential to ensure the client is taking the correct medications and to prevent any potential medication errors. Reviewing the client's medication schedule (choice B) can come after identifying the pills to cross-reference the medications. Assessing the client's symptoms (choice C) is important but should follow identifying the medications. Educating the client about proper medication usage (choice D) is crucial but should be done after confirming the medications in the bag.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

A. Serum sodium level
B. Serum potassium level
C. Serum creatinine level
D. Serum glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. This helps in assessing kidney function and fluid balance. Elevated potassium levels can result from impaired kidney function, which is common in heart failure. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important in heart failure but not specifically related to left-sided heart failure. Serum creatinine (choice C) reflects kidney function but is not the most critical value to monitor in this case. Serum glucose level (choice D) is important but not the priority when assessing left-sided heart failure.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering this medication?

A. Irregular pulse.
B. Tachycardia.
C. Chest pain.
D. Urinary frequency.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular pulse. An irregular pulse may indicate an arrhythmia, which could be exacerbated by atenolol, a beta-blocker used to treat angina pectoris. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so if the patient already has an irregular pulse, it could worsen with the medication. Tachycardia (choice B) would actually be an expected finding in a patient with angina pectoris, and atenolol is used to help reduce the heart rate in such cases. Chest pain (choice C) is a symptom that atenolol is meant to alleviate, so it would not be a reason to withhold the medication. Urinary frequency (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of atenolol for angina pectoris and would not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

4. Which class of drugs is the only source of a cure for septic shock?

A. Antihypertensives
B. Anti-infectives
C. Antihistamines
D. Anticholesteremics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anti-infectives. Anti-infective agents, such as antibiotics, are essential in treating septic shock as they can eliminate bacteria and halt the progression of the condition by stopping the production of endotoxins. Antihypertensives (Choice A) are used to lower blood pressure, antihistamines (Choice C) are used to treat allergic reactions, and anticholesteremics (Choice D) are used to lower cholesterol levels. However, none of these drug classes directly address the bacterial infection that underlies septic shock.

5. A female client with major depressive disorder tells the nurse she feels worthless and can't see how her life will ever get better. What is the best response by the nurse?

A. I can understand how you feel. Tell me more about what's been going on.
B. You're going through a tough time. Let's discuss what makes you feel this way.
C. You sound very hopeless right now. Are you thinking about harming yourself?
D. It's difficult to see the light when you're feeling this way, but I'm here to help you.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the best response because it directly addresses the client's expressed hopelessness and assesses the risk for self-harm. When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feeling worthless and unable to see improvement, it is essential to assess suicidal ideation to ensure their safety. Choices A, B, and D provide empathy and support, which are important but addressing suicidal ideation is the priority in this situation.