hesi rn exit exam 2023 HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. The healthcare provider prescribes ceftazidime (Fortaz) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer for each dose?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to be administered for 35 mg of ceftazidime, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration: 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml. Rounding off, the nurse should administer 0.4 ml for each dose. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't consider rounding off. Choice C is incorrect because it's not the correct calculation. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't reflect the accurate volume needed.

2. When a male Korean-American client looks away when asked by the nurse to describe his problem, what is the best initial nursing action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the best initial nursing action is to allow several minutes for the client to respond. This approach respects the cultural norms of the client, as in some cultures, direct eye contact may be perceived as disrespectful or intrusive. By giving the client time to gather his thoughts and respond at his own pace, the nurse promotes effective communication and demonstrates cultural sensitivity. Asking for assistance from social services to find a Korean interpreter (Choice A) may be necessary for further communication but is not the best initial action. Establishing indirect eye contact (Choice B) may still make the client uncomfortable. Repeating the question using simpler language (Choice D) may not address the underlying cultural aspect affecting the client's response.

3. During the initial visit, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement during the initial visit is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is crucial for ensuring continuous and adequate care, especially for a bed-bound client with multiple sclerosis who relies heavily on the caregiver. While developing a client needs assessment (choice B) and evaluating the caregiver's ability (choice C) are important, understanding the care plan in the caregiver's absence takes precedence. Reviewing daily interventions with the caregiver (choice D) is valuable but not as critical as knowing the care plan during the caregiver's absence.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

5. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab test is important for the nurse to review before contacting the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia. Serum calcium levels should be reviewed as they play a crucial role in diagnosing and managing hypocalcemia. Option A, capillary glucose, is not relevant to the symptoms described. Option B, urine specific gravity, is not typically used to assess numbness and tingling. Option D, white blood cell count, is unrelated to the symptoms presented by the client.

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