HESI RN
Leadership HESI Quizlet
1. A client with type 2 DM is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Avoid taking the medication if you miss a meal.
- D. Take the medication before bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction when taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. Taking metformin with meals helps to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because missing a meal does not mean the medication should be avoided; the client should still take it with the next meal. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime.
2. Clinical manifestations associated with a diagnosis of type 1 DM include all of the following except:
- A. Hypoglycemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Ketonuria.
- D. Polyphagia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes mellitus include hypoglycemia, ketonuria, and polyphagia. Hyponatremia is not typically associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus; it is more commonly linked with other conditions such as syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) or heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Hyponatremia.
3. A client with hyperaldosteronism is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excessive secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes potassium excretion in the kidneys. This leads to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice C). Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite condition, where there is high potassium levels in the blood and is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is a low sodium level, which is not directly related to aldosterone function. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not typically a direct result of hyperaldosteronism.
4. A client is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The nurse anticipates which of the following medications to be ordered?
- A. Levothyroxine
- B. Propylthiouracil
- C. Lithium
- D. Metoprolol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Propylthiouracil. Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication used to manage hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is typically used to treat hypothyroidism, the opposite of hyperthyroidism. Lithium (Choice C) is not used to treat hyperthyroidism but is commonly used to manage bipolar disorder. Metoprolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker that may be used to manage symptoms like tachycardia associated with hyperthyroidism, but it is not the primary treatment for the condition.
5. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
- A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
- B. Encouraging increased oral intake
- C. Restricting fluids
- D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a male client with SIADH is to restrict fluids. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Restricting fluids helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia by reducing water intake. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly (choice A) would worsen the condition by adding more fluids, encouraging increased oral intake (choice B) is contraindicated as it adds more fluids, and administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids (choice D) is not a standard treatment for SIADH.
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