HESI RN
Leadership HESI Quizlet
1. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse manager in managing conflict on the unit?
- A. The nurse manager is responsible for identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner.
- B. The nurse manager is responsible for mediating conflicts between staff members and ensuring that they are resolved in a fair and equitable manner.
- C. The nurse manager is responsible for facilitating communication between staff members and ensuring that conflicts are addressed in a timely manner.
- D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing training and support to staff members to help them develop the skills needed to manage conflict effectively.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse manager's role in managing conflict involves identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner. This includes addressing conflicts at their root cause and guiding staff towards effective resolution. Choice B is incorrect as the nurse manager typically does not act as a mediator but rather empowers staff to resolve conflicts themselves. Choice C is incorrect as while facilitating communication is important, it is not the sole responsibility of the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as providing training and support for conflict management is part of the role, but the primary responsibility lies in addressing the sources of conflict directly.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client is dyspneic and that crackles are audible on auscultation. The nurse suspects excess fluid volume. What additional signs would the nurse expect to note in this client if excess fluid volume is present?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Flat neck and hand veins
- C. An increase in blood pressure
- D. A decreased central venous pressure (CVP)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An increase in blood pressure is a common sign of fluid volume excess in clients with congestive heart failure due to the increased amount of fluid in the vascular system. Weight loss (Choice A) is not typically associated with fluid volume excess. Flat neck and hand veins (Choice B) are signs of fluid volume deficit, not excess. A decreased central venous pressure (CVP) (Choice D) is not expected in a client with fluid volume excess.
3. Albert, a 35-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. He has been febrile since admission. His daily insulin requirement is 24 units of NPH. Every morning Albert is given NPH insulin at 0730. Meals are served at 0830, 1230, and 1830. The nurse expects that the NPH insulin will reach its maximum effect (peak) between the hours of:
- A. 1130 and 1330.
- B. 1330 and 1930.
- C. 1530 and 2130.
- D. 1730 and 2330.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: NPH insulin typically peaks 4-12 hours after administration, so a peak between 1530 and 2130 would be expected. Choice A (1130 and 1330) is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice B (1330 and 1930) falls within the possible peak period but is not as accurate as choice C. Choice D (1730 and 2330) is too late for the peak effect of NPH insulin based on the typical peak timing.
4. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being educated by the nurse about the signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms should the client be instructed to report immediately?
- A. Shakiness
- B. Sweating
- C. Confusion
- D. Increased thirst
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Confusion is a critical symptom of hypoglycemia that may indicate a more severe drop in blood glucose levels. Immediate reporting of confusion is crucial as it could progress rapidly to unconsciousness or seizures, necessitating prompt intervention. Shakiness and sweating are common early signs of hypoglycemia but may not require immediate intervention unless other severe symptoms present. Increased thirst is more indicative of hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, and while it should be monitored, it is not a symptom requiring immediate reporting.
5. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?
- A. Prominent U waves
- B. Prolonged PR interval
- C. Depressed ST segment
- D. Widened QRS complexes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
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