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Leadership HESI Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

2. A client with hyperaldosteronism is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excessive secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes potassium excretion in the kidneys. This leads to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice C). Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite condition, where there is high potassium levels in the blood and is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is a low sodium level, which is not directly related to aldosterone function. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not typically a direct result of hyperaldosteronism.

3. Albert, a 35-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. He has been febrile since admission. His daily insulin requirement is 24 units of NPH. Every morning Albert is given NPH insulin at 0730. Meals are served at 0830, 1230, and 1830. The nurse expects that the NPH insulin will reach its maximum effect (peak) between the hours of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: NPH insulin typically peaks 4-12 hours after administration, so a peak between 1530 and 2130 would be expected. Choice A (1130 and 1330) is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice B (1330 and 1930) falls within the possible peak period but is not as accurate as choice C. Choice D (1730 and 2330) is too late for the peak effect of NPH insulin based on the typical peak timing.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pheochromocytoma is to administer beta-blockers to control blood pressure. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumor that can cause severe hypertension. Beta-blockers are used to block the effects of catecholamines and help control blood pressure in these clients. Encouraging a high-sodium diet (Choice B) would not be appropriate as it can worsen hypertension. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not directly related to managing pheochromocytoma. Restricting fluid intake (Choice D) may lead to dehydration and is not a recommended intervention for this condition.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should prioritize which of the following preoperative actions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels closely before surgery is the priority for a client with diabetes mellitus. This allows for early detection of any abnormalities and helps prevent hypo- or hyperglycemia complications that can arise during the perioperative period. Option A is incorrect because insulin dosing should be individualized based on the client's current blood glucose levels and the surgical plan. Option B is incorrect as abruptly holding oral hypoglycemic agents can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels. Option D is incorrect as adequate fluid intake is important for the client's hydration status and overall well-being before surgery.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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