Free HESI Nutrition practice for HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet (HESI RN). Answer 46 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progres
An 85-year-old client complains of generalized muscle aches and pains. What should be the nurse's first action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the severity and location of the pain. This is crucial because understanding the nature of the pain will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate pain management plan. Choice B is incorrect because administering analgesics should come after assessing the pain to ensure the right medication is given. Choice C is incorrect because dismissing the pain as a normal part of aging without proper assessment could overlook underlying issues. Choice D is incorrect as increasing activity without understanding the cause of pain may exacerbate the client's condition.
A client who has received treatment for kidney stones should be reminded to increase intake of which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Water. Increasing water intake helps prevent the formation of new kidney stones by diluting the urine. Tea (Choice A) contains oxalates, which can contribute to kidney stone formation. Sodium (Choice B) should be limited to prevent the risk of certain types of kidney stones. Protein (Choice D) intake should be moderate as excessive protein consumption may increase the risk of kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to increase water intake is the most appropriate recommendation to prevent the recurrence of kidney stones.
A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). As the nurse enters the client's room, the oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute, the client's color is flushed, and his respirations are 8 per minute. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with COPD, it is crucial to prevent carbon dioxide retention by avoiding high oxygen levels. As the client's oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute and he is showing signs of oxygen toxicity, such as flushed color and low respirations, the nurse's priority should be to lower the oxygen rate. This action helps prevent worsening the client's condition. Obtaining an EKG, placing the client in high Fowler's position, or taking baseline vital signs are important assessments but addressing the potential oxygen toxicity takes precedence in this scenario.
An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking the client's gag reflex is the appropriate action in this scenario. It helps assess the client's ability to swallow safely without the risk of aspiration. Adding a thickening agent to the fluids (Choice A) may be considered later if swallowing difficulties persist. Feeding the client only solid foods (Choice C) can increase the risk of aspiration in this case, and increasing the rate of intravenous fluids (Choice D) does not address the swallowing concern.
A client with a history of pancreatitis should avoid which of the following food choices?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with pancreatitis should avoid high-fat foods like cheddar cheese as they can exacerbate symptoms. Noodles, vegetable soup, and baked fish are generally lower in fat and may be better tolerated by clients with pancreatitis.
An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering the medication in 2 separate injections is the correct action. When the total volume of an injection is relatively large for a specific site, dividing it into smaller volumes and administering them separately is a safer practice to prevent discomfort, tissue damage, or absorption issues. Giving the medication in the ventrogluteal site can be appropriate for IM injections but does not address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection. Calling to get a smaller volume ordered may delay treatment and is not necessary when a safe administration method is available. Checking with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication does not directly address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection, and changing the formulation may not be necessary if the correct administration technique can be applied.
The school nurse is teaching the faculty the most effective methods to prevent the spread of lice in the school. The information that would be most important to include would be which of these statements?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial information to prevent the spread of lice in schools is to avoid sharing hats, scarves, and combs. This is important as lice can easily spread through shared personal items. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical as choice C in preventing the spread of lice. Reapplication of treatment, boiling or steaming bedding and clothing, and using nit combs are important but not as crucial as avoiding the sharing of personal items.
The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities. Weight-bearing activities help strengthen bones and prevent further bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. This type of exercise includes activities like walking, dancing, and weightlifting, which help improve bone density. Choice B is incorrect because the primary focus should be on bone health, not weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding all exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture can lead to muscle weakness and a decline in bone health. Choice D is also incorrect because while strengthening muscles is beneficial, the emphasis for osteoporosis management should be on weight-bearing exercises specifically.
A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which admission orders should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to place the child in respiratory/secretion precautions first. Meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious, and respiratory precautions are essential to prevent the spread of the infection. Seizure precautions may be necessary but are not the priority upon admission. Monitoring neurologic status is important but not the initial action needed. While antibiotic therapy like Cefotaxime is crucial, implementing isolation precautions to prevent transmission takes precedence in this situation.
A client who is pregnant and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being taught about nutrition at home by a nurse. Which of the following statements indicate that the client understands the teachings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help manage nausea associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice A is incorrect because drinking water with meals may exacerbate nausea. Choice B is incorrect as eating every 6 hours may not be frequent enough to combat nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect because protein intake should not be limited during pregnancy, especially in cases of hyperemesis gravidarum.
A client has returned from a cardiac catheterization. Which one of the following assessments would indicate the client is experiencing a complication from the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Loss of pulse in the extremity can indicate an arterial blockage, requiring immediate medical evaluation. Increased blood pressure and heart rate are common physiological responses after cardiac catheterization and may not necessarily indicate a complication. Decreased urine output is more indicative of renal function and may not be directly related to complications from the procedure.
A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.
After a client has an enteral feeding tube inserted, the most accurate method for verification of placement is
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After the insertion of an enteral feeding tube, the most accurate method for verifying its placement is by aspirating gastric contents. This method ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach. Abdominal x-ray can provide additional confirmation but is not as immediate or practical. Auscultation and flushing the tube with saline are not as reliable as aspirating gastric contents for verifying proper placement of an enteral feeding tube.
A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for the administration of feedings and medications. Which nursing action is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube, flushing the tube adequately with water before and after use is essential. This action helps prevent clogging and ensures the proper administration of feedings and medications. Choice A is incorrect because pulverizing all medications into a powdery condition is not necessary for PEG tube administration. Choice B is incorrect as squeezing the tube to break up stagnant liquids may damage the tube. Choice C is incorrect because cleansing the skin around the tube daily with hydrogen peroxide can be too harsh and lead to skin irritation.
A nurse is assisting with the development of strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that doesn't apply).
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Discarding leftovers after 48 hours is not an effective recommendation to prevent foodborne illnesses. Leftovers should actually be discarded within 2 hours if they have been at room temperature. Choices A, B, and D are all effective strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses: avoiding unpasteurized dairy products reduces the risk of harmful bacteria, keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F) inhibits bacterial growth, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly removes contaminants.
A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parent of a toddler about appropriate snacks. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Sliced bananas. Sliced bananas are a healthy and safe snack option for toddlers as they provide essential nutrients and are easy to chew. Bananas are a good source of potassium and fiber. Choice B, raw celery, may pose a choking hazard for toddlers due to its stringy texture. Choice C, peanut butter, can also be a choking hazard and may not be suitable for all toddlers due to potential allergies. Choice D, marshmallows, are high in sugar and low in nutrients, making them an unhealthy choice for toddler snacks.
The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which of these assessments is a priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing for signs of infection at the insertion site is the priority when caring for a client with a chest tube. Infection at the insertion site can lead to serious complications such as empyema or sepsis. Monitoring respiratory status is essential but assessing for infection takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Assessing for subcutaneous emphysema is important but not the priority unless it compromises respiratory function. Checking the chest tube for kinks or occlusions is crucial for proper drainage but is not the priority when infection is a concern.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with hypertension. Which of these statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because limiting high-sodium foods is essential in managing hypertension and preventing complications. High sodium intake can lead to increased blood pressure levels. Choice B is important too, but solely relying on medications without lifestyle modifications may not be as effective in controlling hypertension. Choice C is also crucial for monitoring progress, but without dietary changes, blood pressure control may be challenging. Choice D, limiting high-fat foods, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly related to managing hypertension as limiting high-sodium foods.
The nurse is caring for a client who requires a mechanical ventilator for breathing. The high-pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. What is the first action the nurse should perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When the high-pressure alarm on a ventilator goes off, the nurse's initial action should be to perform a quick assessment of the client's condition. This assessment helps in promptly identifying the cause of the alarm, such as mucus plugging, kinking of the tubing, or other issues. By assessing the client first, the nurse can determine the appropriate intervention needed to address the alarm. Choices A and D are incorrect because disconnecting the client from the ventilator or pressing the alarm reset button should not be the initial actions without assessing the client's condition. While calling the respiratory therapist for help could be beneficial, assessing the client's condition should be the nurse's priority to address the immediate concern.
The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive care unit. The priority assessment in the first hour of care is
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing pupil responses is crucial in a client with hypertensive crisis to monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which can indicate potential neurological complications. While heart rate, pedal pulses, and lung sounds are important assessments, they do not take precedence over neurological assessments in this critical situation.
When reassigned to the emergency department, a nurse should understand that gastric lavage is a priority in which situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because gastric lavage is a priority for infants with botulism to remove toxins from the stomach. Botulism is a serious condition caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria. Gastric lavage helps in removing the toxin from the stomach. Choice B is incorrect because gastric lavage is not typically indicated for ibuprofen ingestion. Choice C is incorrect because gastric lavage is not the first-line treatment for ingesting powdered plant food. Choice D is incorrect because gastric lavage is not routinely performed for vitamin ingestion.
The nurse is monitoring a client who has just had a thyroidectomy. The client complains of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth. Which of these findings should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Chvostek's sign. This is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after a thyroidectomy due to injury or removal of the parathyroid glands. Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications like tetany and laryngospasm, necessitating immediate attention. Assessing Chvostek's sign helps in early identification and management of hypocalcemia. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While assessing the calcium level is important for diagnosing hypocalcemia, the immediate concern is to identify clinical signs like Chvostek's sign, which indicate acute hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is also related to hypocalcemia but is not the most critical sign to assess first. Serum potassium level, although important for overall electrolyte balance, is not directly related to the client's current symptoms of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth.
A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, tingling of the lips (perioral tingling). This is a common symptom of hypocalcemia due to increased neuromuscular excitability. Choice A, decreased deep-tendon reflexes, is more indicative of hypercalcemia. Choice B, skeletal muscle weakness, is associated with hypokalemia. Choice C, hypoactive bowel sounds, is not a typical finding in hypocalcemia.
A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.
Which client calling the community health clinic would the nurse ask to come in that day to be seen by the health care provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because bright red urine without pain suggests possible hematuria, which is a concerning symptom that requires immediate medical evaluation. Option A mentions bright red urine but also relates it to starting a period, which is less likely to be an urgent issue. Option B describes increased urination, which may indicate hyperglycemia but doesn't require immediate evaluation. Option C presents symptoms more related to a urinary tract infection that may not require urgent attention.
The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A high fever, such as 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius), in a client with infective endocarditis indicates that the infection may not be responding to the antibiotics and requires immediate medical evaluation. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically associated with the ineffectiveness of antibiotic therapy in infective endocarditis.
A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has acute pancreatitis and a prescription for fat-soluble vitamin supplements. Which of the following supplements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Vitamin A. Fat-soluble vitamins essential for patients with pancreatitis include A, D, E, and K, aiding in proper nutrient absorption. Vitamin B1 (Choice B), also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin and not a fat-soluble one. Vitamin C (Choice C) is another water-soluble vitamin and not a fat-soluble one. Vitamin B12 (Choice D) is also a water-soluble vitamin and not one of the fat-soluble vitamins crucial for patients with pancreatitis.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery. Which of these findings requires the most immediate attention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit is slightly elevated but not immediately critical. In a postoperative patient, an elevated temperature could indicate an infection, which requires prompt attention to prevent complications. The respiratory rate, blood pressure, and heart rate within normal ranges are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as an elevated temperature does.
A client has viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung. What would be the best position to teach the client to lie in every other hour during the first 12 hours after admission?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct position for a client with viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung is side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees. This position helps maximize lung expansion and oxygenation in cases of pneumonia affecting the right lung. Choice B is incorrect as excessive elevation can put pressure on the lung, and choices C and D are incorrect as side-lying on the right would not be beneficial for a client with pneumonia in the right lung.
The client is being taught about precautions with Coumadin therapy. Which over-the-counter medication should the client be instructed to avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). When a client is on Coumadin therapy, NSAIDs should be avoided because they can increase the risk of bleeding due to their antiplatelet effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Cough medicines with guaifenesin, histamine blockers, and laxatives containing magnesium salts do not have a significant interaction with Coumadin therapy that would necessitate avoidance.
A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'The tube will remove excess air from your chest.' In a spontaneous pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. The chest tube is inserted to remove this excess air, allowing the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of a chest tube in pneumothorax is to evacuate air, not fluid, control air entry, or seal a lung hole.
A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.
In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
Which of these nursing diagnoses of 4 elderly clients would place 1 client at the greatest risk for falls?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia. Nocturia increases the risk of falls in elderly clients due to frequent nighttime trips to the bathroom. Choice A is incorrect because while decreased vision can contribute to falls, nocturia poses a more direct risk. Choice B is incorrect as fatigue may affect mobility but is not as directly linked to falls as nocturia. Choice C is incorrect as impaired gas exchange is not typically associated with an increased risk of falls.
A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial point to reinforce to the patient after a vasectomy is the need for continued contraception until it is confirmed that the ejaculate is sperm-free. Choice A emphasizes this by highlighting the importance of using another form of contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm. This is essential to prevent unintended pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D do not address the key point of ensuring contraception until sperm absence is confirmed and are therefore not as important to reinforce in this scenario.
A client is being treated for tuberculosis (TB). Which of these statements indicates the client understands the transmission of TB?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because wearing a mask in public can help prevent the spread of TB to others. Choice B is incorrect as taking medication as prescribed helps in treating the infection within the individual but does not directly prevent spreading it to others. Choice C is important for respiratory hygiene but may not be sufficient to prevent transmission. Choice D, isolation until treatment is complete, is crucial for preventing the spread but is not specifically about understanding transmission.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has cancer about foods that prevent protein-energy malnutrition. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select one that doesn't apply).
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D - Strawberries and bananas. Cottage cheese, milkshakes, and tuna fish are high in protein and calories, making them beneficial in preventing protein-energy malnutrition. However, strawberries and bananas are not as protein or calorie-dense compared to the other options, so they are not as effective in preventing malnutrition.
A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.
What should a client with diarrhea avoid consuming?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client with diarrhea should avoid consuming orange juice. Orange juice is high in sugar content, which can worsen diarrhea symptoms by drawing water into the intestines, potentially leading to further dehydration and discomfort. Tuna, eggs, and macaroni are generally well-tolerated and do not exacerbate diarrhea symptoms, making them more suitable food choices for individuals experiencing diarrhea.
The health care provider order reads 'aspirate nasogastric feeding (NG) tube every 4 hours and check pH of aspirate.' The pH of the aspirate is 10. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A pH of 10 indicates improper placement of the NG tube, requiring notification of the provider and holding the feeding. Choice B is incorrect because administering the tube feeding could lead to complications due to the improper placement. Choice C is incorrect as irrigating the tube with diet cola soda is not a standard practice for addressing this issue. Choice D is incorrect as applying intermittent suction does not address the problem of improper placement indicated by the high pH level.
The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of these statements made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping medications when blood sugar levels are normal can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels if the individual does not understand the importance of medication adherence in managing diabetes. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that demonstrate good understanding of managing diabetes, such as monitoring blood glucose levels, following a meal plan, exercising regularly, and adhering to medication even when feeling better.
A healthcare professional is assisting with the development of an education program about nutritional risk among adolescents to a group of parents of adolescents. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply).
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Skipping more than three meals per week is an indicator of poor nutritional habits in adolescents. This can lead to inadequate nutrient intake and negatively impact growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with poor nutritional habits among adolescents. Eating fast food once a week may not necessarily indicate poor nutrition if the overall diet is balanced. Having a hearty appetite does not provide specific information about nutritional risk, as appetite can vary among individuals. While whole milk can be a source of calcium, it is not necessary to drink whole milk specifically to ensure adequate calcium intake, as there are other sources of calcium available.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a colostomy about appropriate food choices. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Eggs. Eggs are a good protein source and are less likely to cause blockage or odor issues in clients with colostomies. Grapes, pasta, and dried fruits can be problematic for individuals with colostomies as they may cause digestive issues, blockages, or increased gas production. Grapes have skins that are hard to digest, pasta can cause constipation or blockage, and dried fruits are high in fiber which can lead to blockages.
During the care of a client with a salmonella infection, what is the primary nursing intervention to limit transmission?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to wash hands thoroughly before and after client contact when caring for a client with a salmonella infection. This approach is crucial in preventing the transmission of the infection. While wearing gloves when in contact with body secretions (Choice B), double gloving when in contact with feces or vomitus (Choice C), and wearing gloves when disposing of contaminated linens (Choice D) are important infection control measures, the primary intervention to limit the spread of salmonella is proper hand hygiene.
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