HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet
1. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Decrease in manic episodes.
- B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
- C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
- D. Increased sleep duration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.
2. A male veteran who recently returned from a war zone has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is admitted to the psychiatric ward due to admitted suicidal ideation. On admission, the client’s family informed the healthcare provider that therapy sessions did not seem to be helping. Select only one intervention that has the highest priority.
- A. Administer paroxetine 40 mg as prescribed.
- B. Develop a list of therapy programs.
- C. Remove all shaving equipment.
- D. Determine if the client has a suicide plan.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is to ensure the safety of the client who is admitted due to suicidal ideation. Removing all shaving equipment is crucial to prevent self-harm or suicide attempts using sharp objects. Administering medication or developing a list of therapy programs can be important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Determining if the client has a suicide plan is also essential but not as urgent as removing potential means for self-harm.
3. The RN is teaching a client about the initiation of the prescribed abstinence therapy using disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?
- A. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.
- B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose.
- C. Attend monthly meetings of Alcoholics Anonymous.
- D. Admit to others that he is a substance user.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose." It is essential for the client to understand the importance of abstaining from alcohol for at least 12 hours before starting disulfiram to prevent potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because disulfiram is specifically used to deter alcohol consumption, not heroin or cocaine use. Choice C is not directly related to the initiation of disulfiram therapy and attending AA meetings is not a requirement for taking disulfiram. Choice D is irrelevant and unnecessary for the initiation of disulfiram therapy.
4. A client is receiving substitution therapy during withdrawal from benzodiazepines. Which expected outcome statement has the highest priority when planning nursing care?
- A. Excessive CNS stimulation will be reduced.
- B. Co-dependent behaviors will be decreased.
- C. Client’s level of consciousness will increase.
- D. Client will not demonstrate cross-addiction.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Excessive CNS stimulation will be reduced.' During benzodiazepine withdrawal, the priority is to manage symptoms such as CNS hyperactivity, which can include agitation, anxiety, and seizures. Substitution therapy aims to minimize these withdrawal symptoms by providing a safer alternative to the benzodiazepine. Options B, C, and D are not the highest priority during benzodiazepine withdrawal. Decreasing co-dependent behaviors, increasing the client's level of consciousness, and preventing cross-addiction are important aspects of care but are not as critical as managing the potentially severe CNS stimulation.
5. A teenager who has lost 20 pounds in the last three months is admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia. The client reports irregular menses and hair loss. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Initiate caloric and nutritional therapy.
- B. Implement behavioral modification therapy.
- C. Evaluate the client for low self-esteem.
- D. Record daily weights and graph trends.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client presents with evidence of anorexia nervosa resulting from self-starvation, which is a life-threatening condition. Providing nutrition and calories is the priority intervention so that the risk of electrolyte imbalance and severe dehydration can be reduced. Behavioral modification therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority in this acute situation. Evaluating for low self-esteem (Choice C) may be part of the nursing assessment but does not address the immediate life-threatening issues. Recording daily weights and graphing trends (Choice D) is important for monitoring progress but does not address the critical need for nutritional therapy in this case.
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