hesi fundamentals HESI Fundamentals - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals

1. The healthcare professional retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer to the client? (Enter the numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, divide the ordered dose (3 mg) by the concentration (4 mg/mL). 3 mg ÷ 4 mg/mL = 0.75 mL. Rounding to the nearest tenth, the correct dose to administer is 0.8 mL.

2. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

3. The client, who is newly diagnosed with arteriosclerosis and is obese, is being educated by the nurse on reducing the risk of a heart attack or stroke. Which health promotion brochure should the nurse provide to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most significant risk factor contributing to arteriosclerosis is excess dietary fat, particularly saturated fat and cholesterol. Therefore, the most crucial brochure for the nurse to provide to the client focuses on decreasing cholesterol levels through diet to help reduce the risk of heart attack or stroke.

4. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. Which action will the nurse take next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, if no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting the catheter, it is likely that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the first catheter in place will help locate the meatus more easily when attempting the second catheterization. This approach ensures correct placement of the catheter in the bladder and minimizes the risk of causing unnecessary discomfort or trauma to the patient.

5. The patient had a CVA and developed right-sided hemiplegia. Which action is least appropriate for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the patient in a supine position and pulling the bed sheets tightly across their feet can lead to foot drop, which is harmful for a patient with right-sided hemiplegia. This action can exacerbate muscle weakness and impair circulation in the affected limb. It is crucial to avoid actions that may compromise the patient's safety and well-being, such as causing foot drop in this scenario.

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