Free HESI Fundamentals of Nursing practice for HESI Fundamentals (HESI RN). Answer 67 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress trac
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing chronic pain in both hands and wrists. Which information about the client is most important for the nurse to obtain when planning care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) is crucial in planning care for someone with chronic pain. Understanding the client's functional status helps the nurse tailor interventions to promote independence and enhance quality of life. It provides valuable insight into the impact of pain on daily activities and guides the development of a comprehensive care plan to address the client's specific needs. While family support, pain measurement, and nonverbal behaviors are important aspects to consider in caring for a client with chronic pain, the ability to perform ADLs directly reflects the client's independence and quality of life, making it the most crucial information to obtain.
Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial instruction for a client with limited mobility to prevent venous thrombosis is to perform dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the feet 10 times each hour. These exercises help promote venous return, reducing the risk of thrombosis by preventing blood stasis in the lower extremities. While other measures like turning in bed and staying hydrated are beneficial, promoting venous return through foot exercises is the priority in preventing venous thrombosis in clients with limited mobility. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion directly target the calf muscle pump, aiding in the circulation of blood back to the heart and preventing clot formation. The other options, such as cough and deep breathing exercises, turning in bed, and hydration, are important for overall health but do not directly address venous stasis and thrombosis prevention in the same way as foot exercises.
An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C is the correct answer because focusing on the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection is likely to reinforce his level of competence without sounding punitive. By acknowledging the client's correct performance during the self-injection, the nurse can boost the client's confidence, encouraging him to assume total responsibility for the daily injections. Choices A, B, and D do not directly highlight the client's competence in self-administration, which may not be as effective in promoting independent self-care.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In right-sided heart failure, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood to the lungs leads to fluid backup in the systemic circulation, resulting in peripheral edema (swelling in lower extremities). While jugular vein distention (A) and hepatomegaly (D) can also occur in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is a hallmark sign due to fluid retention. Crackles in the lungs (B) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs.
A seriously ill female client tells the nurse, 'I am so tired and in so much pain! Please help me to die.' Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should prioritize addressing the client's emotional needs by engaging in a conversation to understand the underlying feelings behind her statement. By exploring the client's thoughts about death, the nurse can provide appropriate support and interventions tailored to the client's concerns. Rushing to administer pain medication may not address the emotional distress expressed by the client. Initiating antidepressant therapy is not suitable without assessing the client's feelings further. Referring the client to the ethics committee is premature and does not address the immediate emotional needs of the client. Therefore, empathetic communication and assessment of the client's feelings regarding her situation are crucial for providing holistic care.
The client has received a new diagnosis of heart failure, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Avoiding foods high in sodium (choice B) is essential for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid retention and decrease the strain on the heart. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, exacerbating heart failure symptoms. Increasing potassium intake (choice A) can be harmful in heart failure if not monitored closely as it can affect heart rhythm. Limiting fluid intake (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but the specific amount should be individualized based on the client's condition. Increasing vitamin K intake (choice D) is not a primary concern in heart failure management and is more relevant for clients on anticoagulants to manage blood clotting.
When caring for a client in hemorrhagic shock, how should the nurse position the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a client in hemorrhagic shock, the nurse should position the client flat in bed with legs elevated. Elevating the legs helps increase venous return to the heart, aiding in the management of hemorrhagic shock by maintaining perfusion to vital organs.
A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.
The client was placed in restraints due to confusion while hospitalized. The family removes the restraints in the client's presence. After the family leaves, what should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse's initial action should be to reassess the client to determine if restraints are still necessary following their removal by the family. This reassessment is crucial to evaluate the client's current condition and the need for restraints before considering reapplication. By reassessing first, the nurse ensures that the client's safety is maintained while respecting their autonomy. While documentation and monitoring are important, reassessment takes priority to provide individualized and appropriate care to the client. Contacting the healthcare provider for a new order should occur after reassessment if restraints are deemed necessary.
During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. What respiratory rate should the nurse document?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should document a respiratory rate of 16. The second count of eight respirations in a 30-second interval is the most accurate as it was not interrupted by the client coughing. Therefore, this rate reflects the client's typical respiratory pattern and should be documented. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider the interruption caused by the client coughing during the first count, which could have affected the accuracy of the result. The second count of eight respirations provides a more reliable indication of the client's respiratory rate.
A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct calculation involves dividing the total volume by the total time. In this case, 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour. The dose of KCl is not used in the calculation as the focus is on the rate of infusion over the specified time period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (80 ml/hour) and Choice D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect calculations and do not match the correct rate of infusion required.
A healthcare professional stops at a motor vehicle collision site to render aid until the emergency personnel arrive and applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely. Later, the client has to have the leg amputated and sues the healthcare professional for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Good Samaritan Act protects healthcare professionals who provide care in good faith and offer reasonable assistance in emergencies. This law shields them from malpractice claims, even if the outcome for the client is unfavorable. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is likely to be protected from judgment under the Good Samaritan Act. Choice A is incorrect because the situation does not involve the Patient's Bill of Rights, but rather the Good Samaritan Act. Choice B is incorrect as the license revocation is not a typical outcome in Good Samaritan cases. Choice D is incorrect as the Good Samaritan Act provides immunity from liability in such emergency situations.
A client with a diagnosis of hyperkalemia is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Monitoring the serum potassium level allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of this medication in lowering the elevated potassium levels. Serum sodium (A), calcium (C), and glucose (D) levels are not directly impacted by the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate.
After insertion of the indwelling catheter, how should the nurse position the drainage container?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct position for the drainage container after inserting an indwelling catheter is to have it placed lower than the bladder. This positioning helps maintain a constant downward flow of urine from the bladder, preventing backflow and ensuring proper drainage. Choice A is incorrect because having the drainage tubing taut does not promote proper urine flow and may cause kinking. Choice C is incorrect as placing the container at the head of the bed does not affect drainage and is not necessary for accurate measurement. Choice D is incorrect as the positioning of the drainage container should prioritize proper drainage and care over potential embarrassment.
A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing chest pain, the priority intervention for the nurse to implement first is to apply oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygenation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the tissues and the heart. This intervention takes precedence over administering sublingual nitroglycerin, obtaining an ECG, or initiating continuous cardiac monitoring. While these interventions are important, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the initial priority in the management of a client with chest pain.
A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.
You are assigned to teach a student how to suction an adult patient with a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions by the student would be incorrect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The incorrect action by the student is applying gentle intermittent pressure and rotating the catheter during the insertion phase of suctioning. This technique can cause trauma to the tracheal walls, increasing the risk of injury to the patient. It is essential to perform suctioning gently and without rotation to prevent complications in patients with a tracheostomy. Pre-oxygenating the patient, maintaining appropriate suction pressure, and limiting suctioning time are all correct actions when suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy.
A client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease is receiving atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To evaluate the effectiveness of atorvastatin (Lipitor), the nurse should monitor liver function tests (LFTs) (C) because this medication can impact liver function. Complete blood count (CBC) (A), serum potassium level (B), and serum cholesterol level (D) are not directly indicative of the medication's effectiveness in managing coronary artery disease.
What is the most important action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a spinal cord injury experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with autonomic dysreflexia, the most critical action is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees (A). This positioning helps reduce blood pressure, which is essential in managing autonomic dysreflexia. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (B) is important for overall assessment but not the priority in this situation. Administering an antihypertensive medication (C) without addressing the positioning issue first can lead to further complications. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (D) is not directly related to autonomic dysreflexia and is not the initial priority in this scenario.
A 20-year-old female client with a noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority for the nurse is to educate the client on the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation. Although it's crucial to respect the client's beliefs, providing education ensures the client receives accurate information to make informed decisions about her hygiene practices. By offering teaching first, the nurse can address any misconceptions or concerns the client may have while promoting optimal hygiene practices for overall well-being. Choice A should not be the first action as it does not address the client's potential misinformation about hygiene. Choice B is not ideal as it only offers a temporary solution without addressing the underlying issue. Choice C is not the priority as the immediate concern is the client's personal hygiene practices.
An older female client with rheumatoid arthritis is complaining of severe joint pain that is caused by the weight of the linen on her legs. What action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The nurse should first address the immediate comfort concern of the client, which is the weight of the linen on her legs causing severe joint pain. By draping the sheets over the footboard of the bed rather than tucking them under the mattress, the nurse can alleviate the pressure that the client perceives as the source of her pain. This action is a simple and effective way to provide relief and should be the initial step taken by the nurse. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the client's immediate discomfort caused by the weight of the linen on her legs, making them less appropriate initial actions.
When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should record the amount on the client's fluid output record because the 350 mL of pale yellow urine is a normal finding. This indicates appropriate urine output, so encouraging increased fluid intake or notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this time. Additionally, palpating the client's bladder for distention is not indicated based on the normal urine output observed.
The client has a chest tube. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping the drainage system below the level of the chest (C) is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent backflow of air or fluid into the chest cavity. This position helps maintain the integrity of the closed drainage system. Ensuring the chest tube remains unclamped at all times (A) allows for continuous drainage. Emptying the chest tube (B) should be done as needed, not routinely every 2 hours. Assessing for subcutaneous emphysema (D) is important but not the most critical action in this scenario.
A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the nurse have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. In the Jehovah's Witness religion, blood transfusions are forbidden due to their beliefs. Autopsy prohibition is in Judaism, while alcohol and drug use is not allowed in Buddhism. While some sects are vegetarian, the critical concern in nursing care for Jehovah's Witnesses is respecting their prohibition of blood transfusions.
During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response for the nurse is to ask the client to talk about specific concerns. This approach provides an opportunity for the client to express her worries openly, allowing the nurse to gather more detailed information for a comprehensive assessment and to address the client's concerns effectively.
A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to compare the current blood pressure reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison will provide valuable information about what is normal for this specific client, helping to determine if the current reading represents a significant change or if it falls within the client's usual range. By reviewing the client's past readings, the nurse can assess trends, variations, and if the current reading is an isolated high value or part of a pattern, guiding appropriate decision-making. Informing the client about the high reading (Choice A) or contacting the healthcare provider for medication (Choice B) should come after assessing the client's history. Replacing the cuff (Choice C) is not necessary at this point and does not address the immediate need to compare the readings for appropriate intervention.
The UAP is positioning a newly admitted client with a seizure disorder in a supine position. The UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent the risk of suffocation, soft blankets are preferred over pillows for padding side rails in clients with seizure disorders. Pillows can pose a suffocation hazard, especially during a seizure episode when the client's movements may be uncontrolled. Instructing the UAP to use soft blankets instead of pillows is crucial for ensuring the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect because pillows can be hazardous during a seizure. Choice C is incorrect as side-lying position may not be appropriate for a client with a seizure disorder. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the safety concern related to using pillows.
What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.
The healthcare provider identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proper handwashing technique is crucial in preventing the transmission of infections, especially in clients with burns where the risk of infection is high. It is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of contamination and promote healing in these clients. While plasma expanders, topical antibacterial creams, and visitor restrictions are important considerations in burn care, meticulous hand hygiene takes precedence in preventing infections. Handwashing helps remove pathogens that could lead to infections, making it essential in the care of clients with burns.
When planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The highest priority nursing diagnosis when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is 'High risk for infection.' Indwelling urinary catheters pose a significant risk of infection due to their direct contact with the urinary system. Preventing and managing infections is crucial in the care of these clients. Monitoring for signs of infection, following proper catheter care protocols, and maintaining aseptic technique during catheter maintenance are essential steps to prevent complications associated with catheter-related infections. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority because in this case, the immediate concern is the risk of infection associated with the presence of the urinary catheter. While self-care deficit, functional incontinence, and fluid volume deficit are important considerations in overall patient care, they are not as critical as preventing potentially serious infections related to the indwelling urinary catheter.
Why is it most important to start intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most critical reason for initiating intravenous infusions in the upper extremities of adults is to reduce the risk of thrombosis (B). Venous return is typically better in the upper extremities, decreasing the likelihood of thrombus formation, which could be life-threatening if dislodged. Although superficial veins are easily found in the feet and ankles (A), this is not the primary reason for choosing the upper extremities. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is not significantly more challenging than handling an arm or hand. The depth of veins in the feet and ankles (D) does not primarily determine the site for IV placement.
The client is receiving discharge teaching for a new diagnosis of asthma. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The statement 'I should avoid using my inhaler unless I am having an asthma attack' (B) indicates a need for further teaching. It is important for clients to use their inhaler as prescribed, which may include regular use to prevent asthma attacks. Choice A is correct because using the inhaler when feeling short of breath can help manage asthma symptoms. Choice C is also correct as using the inhaler before exercise can prevent exercise-induced symptoms. Choice D is correct as rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps prevent oral thrush, a potential side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Therefore, option B is the most concerning statement that needs clarification.
Which client care task requires the nurse to wear barrier gloves as mandated by the Standard Precautions protocol?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because emptying a urinary catheter drainage bag exposes the nurse to body fluids, necessitating the use of barrier gloves as per Standard Precautions to prevent potential infection transmission.
The healthcare provider selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the healthcare provider use to identify placement of the IV access?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large, superficial vein located on the radial side of the forearm, making it the preferred site for IV access. It is often the best choice for insertion of an IV catheter due to its accessibility and low risk of complications, such as infiltration. Documenting the use of the right cephalic vein for IV access is crucial for accurate and safe patient care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the left brachial vein, the dorsal side of the right wrist, and the right upper extremity are not typically preferred sites for IV catheter insertion and may not provide optimal access or outcomes.
A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory test should the nurse expect to be ordered to determine if the client is experiencing another MI?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Troponin is the most specific and sensitive laboratory test for detecting myocardial infarction (MI). It is released when there is damage to the heart muscle, making it a valuable marker for diagnosing another MI. Myoglobin and CK-MB can also be elevated in MI, but troponin is preferred due to its higher specificity. C-reactive protein is a marker of inflammation and not specific to MI.
When assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair, what is the best action for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best action for the nurse when assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair is to use a transfer belt. Placing a transfer belt around the client, assisting the client to stand, and pivoting to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed allows for a safe and controlled transfer. This method promotes patient independence while ensuring safety during the transfer process. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because using a mechanical lift may not be necessary for a client who can stand, using a roller board may not provide enough stability, and lifting the client with the help of another staff member may not be the safest option for the client's independence and safety.
The healthcare provider attaches a pulse oximeter to a client's fingers and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Edema in the fingers and hands can impede the proper functioning of the pulse oximeter, leading to a falsely low oxygen saturation reading. Edema alters the transmission of light through the tissues, affecting the accuracy of the measurement. Therefore, the presence of edema in the fingers and hands is the most likely factor contributing to the low oxygen saturation reading of 91%.
An elderly client with a fractured left hip is on strict bedrest. Which nursing measure is essential to the client's nursing care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The essential nursing measure for a client with a fractured left hip on strict bedrest is to gently lift the client when moving into a desired position (D). This helps to avoid shearing forces and prevents further injury. Massaging reddened areas (A) should be avoided to prevent skin damage. Active range of motion exercises (B) may be limited due to pain and muscle spasms in the affected leg. The position described in (C) is contraindicated for a client with a fractured left hip as it may cause additional harm.
The healthcare professional is administering an intermittent infusion of an antibiotic to a client with an antecubital saline lock. After opening the roller clamp on the IV tubing, the alarm on the infusion pump indicates an obstruction. What action should be taken first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Repositioning the client's arm is the initial action to take when encountering an obstruction with an antecubital saline lock. Repositioning may correct any bending at the elbow that could be causing the obstruction, allowing for smoother infusion flow. Checking for a blood return, removing the IV site dressing, or flushing the lock with saline would be subsequent actions once the obstruction is addressed. Checking for a blood return is done to confirm proper placement, removing the IV site dressing is necessary for site assessment, and flushing the lock with saline helps maintain patency but should not be the first action when an obstruction is detected.
The healthcare provider is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications such as excessive bleeding and difficulty in achieving hemostasis. This poses a significant threat during a surgical procedure where controlling bleeding is crucial for a successful outcome. The other options (A, C, D) are not as critical as anticoagulants in terms of posing a threat for complications during surgery. Birth control pills, recently completing antibiotic therapy, and using laxatives do not directly impact bleeding risks during surgery compared to anticoagulants.
The nursing staff in the cardiovascular intensive care unit is creating a continuous quality improvement project on social media that addresses coronary artery disease (CAD). Which action should the nurse implement to protect client privacy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To protect client privacy on social media, it is essential to remove any identifying information of clients who participated in the project. This ensures that sensitive information is not disclosed without consent and maintains confidentiality. Choice B is incorrect because while authored content may be legally discoverable, it does not directly relate to protecting client privacy on social media. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to the credibility of sources, not client privacy. Choice D is also incorrect as it focuses on copyright laws rather than client privacy protection.
The nurse is attempting to pass an indwelling catheter in an adult male and is having difficulty. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
If resistance is encountered, the nurse should discontinue the procedure and notify the physician, as this may indicate an obstruction.
The client is weak from inactivity due to a 2-week hospitalization. In planning care for the client, which range of motion (ROM) exercises should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Active ROM exercises are preferred over passive ROM to restore strength. Performing them on both arms and legs two or three times a day is effective in promoting muscle strength and mobility without the need for external assistance. Choice A is incorrect as passive ROM exercises may not help in restoring strength. Choice C is not recommended as using weights may be too strenuous for a weak client. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond may cause discomfort or injury to the weak client.
Warm compresses are ordered for an open wound. Which action is appropriate for the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using sterile technique when applying the compresses is crucial to prevent infection and promote wound healing. Ensuring a clean environment during wound care reduces the risk of introducing pathogens that can lead to complications. Proper infection control measures play a significant role in the healing process of open wounds. Choice B is incorrect because leaving the compresses on continuously can lead to skin damage or thermal injury. Choice C is incorrect as alternating warm compresses with cold compresses is not appropriate for an open wound. Choice D is incorrect as applying a wet dressing without following specific orders can be detrimental to wound healing.
The daughter of an older woman who became depressed following the death of her husband asks, 'My mother was always well-adjusted until my father died. Will she tend to be sick from now on?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The successful resolution of a developmental crisis in the later years involves acceptance and adaptation, and the daughter should be reassured that recovery is likely.
When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the restraint (A) because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicate decreased circulation. Comparing hand color bilaterally (C) and palpating the right radial pulse (D) are important assessments to gather more information, but they do not have the priority of addressing the decreased circulation by loosening the restraint. Applying a pulse oximeter (B) is not indicated in this scenario as it measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen, which is not relevant when cyanosis is related to mechanical compression from the restraints.
The healthcare provider is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the healthcare provider use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct technique to cleanse a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method is to irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline. Sterile normal saline is the preferred solution for wound cleaning as it is gentle and does not damage healthy tissues. It helps in removing debris and maintaining a moist environment conducive to healing. Povidone-iodine solution and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on tissues and delay wound healing. Removing eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing is a mechanical debridement method and should not be done without proper assessment and healthcare provider's order.
The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct transfer procedure for an elderly client with left-sided weakness involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. Using the stronger side, the right side, for weight-bearing during the transfer is the safest approach to prevent falls or injuries. Placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving can lead to poor body mechanics and increase the risk of accidents. Assisting the client to a standing position and having the client pivot to the left are not recommended for a client with left-sided weakness as it can compromise safety and stability during the transfer.
During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.
The healthcare professional observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the healthcare professional's intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse is the site for auscultation when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. Auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg is incorrect as it may lead to an inaccurate reading. Placing the client in a prone position and wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg are acceptable practices. A systolic reading that is 20 mm Hg higher in the lower extremity compared to the arm is expected due to the difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower parts of the body.
After abdominal surgery, an adult is now alert and oriented. What position is most appropriate for the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate position for a client following abdominal surgery is Semi-Fowler's. This position promotes greater thoracic expansion and reduces pressure on the suture line, aiding in respiratory function and preventing strain on the incision site. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Prone position (Choice B) would not be suitable after abdominal surgery as it can put pressure on the abdomen. Supine position (Choice C) may cause discomfort and strain on the incision area. Sim's position (Choice D) is primarily used for rectal exams and enemas, which are unrelated to the needs post-abdominal surgery.
A client with stage 4 lung cancer receiving in-home hospice care expresses concerns about pain while the nurse is arranging for discharge. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In managing pain for a client with stage 4 lung cancer in hospice care, providing a schedule for around-the-clock prescribed analgesic use is essential. This approach ensures continuous pain control and helps prevent breakthrough pain. By having a consistent dosing schedule, the client can maintain a more stable level of pain relief, enhancing their comfort and quality of life during this critical time.
A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What type of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer to this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL, which indicates severe hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should prepare to administer regular insulin (A). Regular insulin has a rapid onset of action and is the preferred choice for immediate correction of high blood glucose levels. NPH insulin (B), lispro insulin (C), and glargine insulin (D) are not suitable for the rapid correction of severe hyperglycemia.
The healthcare provider is conducting an initial admission assessment for a woman who is Mexican-American and who is scheduled to deliver a baby by C-section in the next 24 hours. What should the healthcare provider include in the assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for patients from diverse cultural backgrounds, it is essential to respect and consider their cultural norms and practices while providing healthcare. Understanding and incorporating cultural beliefs and values can enhance the quality of care and improve patient outcomes.
A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regimen. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acknowledging the effectiveness of acupuncture is important, as the client has reported its success in managing her pain previously.
The mental health nurse plans to discuss a client's depression with the health care provider in the emergency department. There are two clients sitting across from the emergency department desk. Which nursing action is best?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best nursing action is to discuss the client another time. When discussing a client's confidential information, it is essential to ensure privacy and confidentiality. Given the presence of other clients in the immediate vicinity, it is inappropriate to discuss personal details about a client's condition openly. Waiting for a more private setting is crucial to uphold the client's right to privacy and confidentiality. Choices A, B, and C are not appropriate because referring to the client only by gender, age, or avoiding the client's name does not address the issue of discussing confidential information in a public setting, which compromises the client's privacy and confidentiality.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.
When a male client mentions his foot is hurting while watching TV with his wife, how should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10. This helps the nurse assess the intensity of the pain and determine the appropriate pain medication. Encouraging him to wait or attend to another client's needs first are incorrect because pain management should be addressed promptly. Instructing on deep breathing exercises may be helpful but is not the initial step in addressing acute pain.
What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a 65-year-old client who attends an adult daycare program, is wheelchair-mobile, and has redness in the sacral area?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a client with redness in the sacral area, the most critical instruction is to change positions in the chair at least every hour. This is crucial to prevent pressure ulcers, which can develop due to prolonged pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. Regular position changes help relieve pressure on vulnerable areas, promoting circulation and reducing the risk of skin breakdown and pressure ulcer formation.
A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg ÷ 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.
A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the infusion rate, set up a ratio proportion problem: 50 ml/20 min = x ml/60 min. Cross multiply to solve: 50 x 60 / 20 = 150 ml/hr. Therefore, the infusion pump should be set to deliver the secondary infusion at a rate of 150 ml/hr. Option A, 75 ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the correct calculation. Option C, 225 ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too high a rate based on the calculation. Option D, 300 ml/hr, is also incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation for the infusion rate.
A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) (D) is the most concerning finding for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as it may indicate an infection, which poses a significant risk. Monitoring blood glucose level (A), blood pressure (B), and serum albumin (C) are also important, but an elevated temperature suggests a potential serious complication that requires immediate attention.
The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring the client's respiratory rate and effort is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and prevent complications such as respiratory depression. This intervention helps the nurse promptly detect any deterioration in the client's respiratory status and take necessary actions to ensure the client's safety. Encouraging continuous oxygen use (Choice A) may lead to oxygen toxicity. Setting the oxygen flow rate at a specific level (Choice C) without individual assessment can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Teaching the client to avoid wearing wool blankets (Choice D) is unrelated to the safe use of oxygen therapy.
A client is receiving intravenous (IV) fluids postoperatively. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Swelling at the IV site may indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which requires stopping the IV infusion and notifying the healthcare provider. Infiltration occurs when the IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing swelling and potential damage. It is crucial to act promptly to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety.
Earlier this morning, an elderly Hispanic female was discharged to a LTC facility. The family members are now gathered in the hallway outside her room. What is the best action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, providing space and privacy for the family allows them to openly discuss their concerns regarding the client's discharge. It respects the family's need for support, communication, and involvement in the decision-making process, ultimately fostering a more effective and compassionate care environment.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.
The healthcare professional in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague's assignment. Which action should the healthcare professional implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Observing a colleague accessing a patient's EHR without a legitimate reason is a violation of HIPAA, which protects patient confidentiality. The appropriate action in this scenario is to communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse immediately. The charge nurse can then address the issue internally and ensure that patient privacy is maintained. Reporting the incident through the appropriate channels within the healthcare facility is the most effective and professional way to handle such breaches of patient confidentiality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve addressing the issue internally within the healthcare facility. Reporting such incidents internally is essential to ensure that patient privacy is protected, and the matter is handled appropriately by healthcare authorities.
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