Free Reproductive Health practice for Reproductive System Exam Quizlet (HESI RN). Answer 58 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progres
What action does the copper used in Copper T have?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Spermicidal. The copper in Copper T exerts its action by affecting sperm viability and motility, thus preventing fertilization. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Copper T primarily works by preventing sperm from reaching and fertilizing the egg, rather than acting on blastocysts, bacteria, or bacteriocins.
Which of the following is a common presentation in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with irregular periods (oligomenorrhea), obesity, and increased hair growth (hirsutism) due to hormonal imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as amenorrhea (absence of periods), generalized hair loss, and weight gain are not typical features of PCOS. Choice C is incorrect as repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain are not characteristic of PCOS. Choice D is incorrect as fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding) are not primary symptoms seen in PCOS.
Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A pelvic examination involves the inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall. This is typically done to assess the health of the reproductive organs and screen for any abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while palpation and digital examination may be part of a pelvic exam, the specific focus on the cervix and vaginal wall is a key component that distinguishes it from other types of examinations.
What is the role of the prolactin hormone?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Stimulates milk production.' Prolactin hormone is responsible for promoting the production of milk in the mammary glands. This hormone does not directly stimulate the development of milk-producing tissue (Choice A), milk storage (Choice B), or milk ejection (Choice D). While these functions are related to lactation, the primary role of prolactin is to facilitate milk production.
During a vaginal examination, which of the following statements is true?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. The cervix is best visualized with the Cusco's type of spectrum. This statement is true and important during a vaginal examination. Choice A is incorrect because cervical cytology scrapes can be taken during the same setting as a vaginal examination, not necessarily prior to it. Choice B is incorrect as it states 'after' bimanual examination, which is not the typical sequence. Choice D is incorrect because during pregnancy, the cervix feels soft rather than firm like the tip of the nose.
Which animal is an ovoviviparous animal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the Blue shark. Ovoviviparous animals produce eggs that develop inside the body of the parent, and the offspring are born alive. The basking shark does not fall under this category as it is ovoviviparous, meaning it lays eggs that hatch inside the female's body. The bonobo is a separate species and not relevant to the question.
At what age are women likely to enter menopause?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Women generally enter menopause between the ages of 45 - 50 years. During this stage, women experience a decline in estrogen production, leading to the cessation of menstrual cycles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not fall within the typical age range for menopause onset. Menopause typically occurs later in life, around the age of 45 to 50 years, although individual variations exist.
What is an organelle that helps the sperm to penetrate the ovum?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Acrosome. The acrosome is an organelle located at the head of a sperm cell and contains enzymes that aid in the penetration of the ovum during fertilization. The Zona pellucida is a glycoprotein membrane surrounding the ovum, not an organelle. Megalis is not a relevant organelle in this context. Therefore, the correct choice is A, Acrosome.
Which phase of the menstrual cycle is variable?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The regenerative phase of the menstrual cycle is the phase in which the endometrium rebuilds after menstruation. This phase can vary in duration from woman to woman and cycle to cycle. Choice A, the ovulatory phase, is not variable as it typically lasts around 24 hours. Choice C, the secretory phase, is also relatively consistent in its duration. Choice D, the menstrual phase, is the shedding of the endometrial lining and usually lasts around 3-7 days.
Menopausal women require a diet rich in calcium to prevent osteoporosis. Which one of the following is a source of calcium?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Spinach is a good source of calcium, which is crucial for preventing osteoporosis in menopausal women. Spinach is a leafy green vegetable high in calcium content. While cabbage, carrots, and rape are nutritious, they do not provide as much calcium as spinach does. Therefore, spinach is the correct choice for menopausal women looking to increase their calcium intake.
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of vaginitis EXCEPT?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vaginitis is characterized by symptoms such as vaginal itching, irritation, pain during coitus, and painful urination. However, heavy vaginal bleeding is not typically associated with vaginitis. Vaginal bleeding could be indicative of other conditions like cervical or endometrial issues, but it is not a common symptom of vaginitis.
The patient about to undergo gynecological surgery is put on nil by mouth for ____ before surgery to prevent aspiration.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patients undergoing gynecological surgery are typically advised to be nil by mouth for 4-6 hours before the procedure to reduce the risk of aspiration. This duration allows the stomach to empty its contents, decreasing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of stomach contents during surgery. Choices A, B, and D have shorter durations and may not provide sufficient time for adequate gastric emptying, increasing the risk of aspiration.
At 3-4 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
At 3-4 weeks of pregnancy, breast changes commonly involve tenderness due to hormonal fluctuations. Darkening of the nipple (Choice A) typically occurs later in pregnancy. Prickling, tingling sensations (Choice B) are more associated with early pregnancy due to increased blood flow to the breast area. Colostrum production (Choice D) usually begins later in pregnancy, closer to the end of the third trimester.
Which of the following is not a complication of menopause?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Congestive heart failure is not typically associated with menopause. Menopause is linked to an increased risk of fractures due to bone density loss, a higher risk of Alzheimer's disease due to hormonal changes affecting the brain, and painful intercourse due to vaginal dryness and decreased lubrication. While cardiovascular health can be affected by menopause, congestive heart failure is not a direct complication of menopause.
Discuss the anatomical/physiological changes in pregnancy under the following: Uterus
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During pregnancy, the uterus undergoes various anatomical and physiological changes. The correct answer, Choice A, accurately describes these changes. The uterus softens in the anterior midline, becomes flexible at the uterocervical junction, experiences an increase in blood vasculature size and number, and myometrial cells hypertrophy. This softening and increased vascularity are essential for accommodating the growing fetus and facilitating delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the typical changes that occur in the uterus during pregnancy. The uterus does not decrease in size, remain unchanged in size, become more rigid, or hypertrophy without the described softening and vascular changes.
Risk of endometrial hyperplasia is greatest in individuals who do not menstruate for at least _____ months and require immediate referral:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: '4 months.' The risk of endometrial hyperplasia is highest in individuals who do not menstruate for at least 4 months. This prolonged exposure to unopposed estrogen can lead to endometrial hyperplasia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the risk is greatest after at least 4 months of not menstruating, not 2, 3, or 5 months.
Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.
Which department of the Government ministries was given the mandate to pilot a draft population policy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: The department of planning and development. In the extract provided, it explicitly mentions that this department was tasked with piloting the population policy. The other choices are incorrect because the National census is primarily responsible for collecting demographic data, Human rights focus on ensuring and protecting human rights, and Central statistics deal with statistical data collection and analysis, none of which directly align with piloting a population policy.
The _________ is a temporary organ that connects a mammalian mother to its foetus.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Placenta. The placenta is a temporary organ that connects a mammalian mother to its foetus. It plays a crucial role in facilitating the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste between the mother and the developing baby. Choice B, Chorion, is incorrect as it is a part of the fetal membrane but not the organ that connects the mother to the fetus. Choice C, Endometrium, is incorrect as it is the lining of the uterus where implantation occurs but is not the organ responsible for connecting the mother to the fetus. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as the placenta specifically fits the description provided in the question.
In Primary Health care, the concept of accessibility requires that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In Primary Health care, accessibility entails having a referral network and transportation system in place to link patients to higher-level facilities when needed. Choice A is incorrect because patients should not be required to accept one service to access another. Choice C is incorrect as access to services should not be contingent on social or cultural backgrounds, age, or marital status. Choice D is also incorrect because educational status should not determine patients' access to healthcare services.
Which one is not a barrier method for birth control?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Intrauterine Devices (IUDs). Barrier methods of birth control physically block sperm from reaching the egg. Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are examples of barrier methods as they create a barrier that prevents sperm from reaching the cervix. In contrast, IUDs work by altering the cervical mucus and uterine lining, making it difficult for sperm to reach the egg, but they do not physically block sperm like barrier methods do.
Which of the following is the most effective method of contraception?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sterilization is considered the most effective method of contraception because it permanently prevents pregnancy. Barrier methods, hormonal pills, and IUDs are highly effective as well, but they are reversible methods and may have a higher failure rate compared to sterilization.
Which of the following are outcomes of an ectopic pregnancy EXCEPT?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. Common outcomes include tubal abortion (spontaneous termination of ectopic pregnancy within the fallopian tube), tubal rupture (rupture of the fallopian tube leading to internal bleeding), and intra-tubal bleeding. Secondary abdominal pregnancy, on the other hand, is a rare occurrence and not a typical outcome of an ectopic pregnancy. It involves the implantation of a fertilized egg in the peritoneal cavity rather than the uterus.
To ensure the provision of appropriate services for overcoming infertility barriers to the achievement of reproductive intentions, Integrated Reproductive Health has incorporated a component of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Infertility. Integrated Reproductive Health incorporates a component focused on infertility to address barriers to achieving reproductive intentions. This inclusion is crucial as infertility can be a significant obstacle to reproductive health. Choice B, safe abortions, is incorrect as it is not directly related to overcoming infertility barriers. Choice C, STIs and HIV, while important for reproductive health, is not specifically addressing infertility. Choice D, family planning, although relevant for reproductive health, is not the primary focus when addressing infertility barriers.
Which group of the population does the Maternal nutrition component of IRH improve?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Women and adolescent girls. Maternal nutrition programs typically target women of reproductive age and adolescent girls to improve their health outcomes. Option B is incorrect because maternal nutrition initiatives extend beyond just pregnant women. Option C is incorrect because the focus is not on all children under five but specifically on women and adolescent girls. Option D is incorrect because the program does not target all adolescents, but rather women and adolescent girls.
Which of the following is an example of an oviparous animal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Pigeon. Oviparous animals are those that lay eggs, and pigeons fall under this category. Choice B, Elephant, is incorrect because elephants are viviparous, giving birth to live young. Choice C, Sheep, is also incorrect as sheep are viviparous animals. Choice D, None of the above, is not the correct answer as a pigeon is indeed an example of an oviparous animal.
Approximately how many primordial follicles are present in the cortex of the ovary at birth?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 250,000. At birth, there are approximately 250,000 primordial follicles in the cortex of each ovary. These primordial follicles represent the reserve of oocytes that a female will have throughout her reproductive life. Choice B, 200,000, is incorrect as the number is higher. Choices C and D, 150,000 and 100,000 respectively, are also incorrect as they underestimate the actual number of primordial follicles present at birth.
The weight of the non-pregnant uterus is approximately ___________grams.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 80. The non-pregnant uterus typically weighs around 80 grams. This weight may vary slightly among individuals, but 80 grams is a commonly accepted average. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the typical weight of the non-pregnant uterus. It is important to remember this approximate weight for medical reference and understanding of normal anatomical variations.
A menstrual disorder with irregular or continuous bleeding from the uterus is known as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Metrorrhagia is the correct term for irregular or continuous bleeding from the uterus. Menorrhagia refers to heavy menstrual bleeding, not necessarily irregular. Polymenorrhoea is characterized by frequent menstrual periods, while Epimenorrhoea is not a recognized medical term related to menstrual disorders.
What is one role of the hormone estrogen?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Estrogen stimulates the development of the milk-producing tissue in the breast. This hormone is essential in preparing the breast for milk production. Choice B is incorrect because lactoferrin production is not a primary role of estrogen. Choice C is incorrect as estrogen primarily influences the development of the breast tissue rather than specifically the nipple and duct system. Choice D is incorrect because relaxin secretion is not a function typically associated with estrogen.
Where does fertilization normally occur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fertilization typically occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube. The ampulla provides the ideal environment for fertilization due to the presence of cilia that help transport the egg and sperm, as well as the nourishing fluid within this region. The interstitial portion, isthmus, and infundibulum of the fallopian tube are not the primary sites for fertilization. The interstitial portion connects the fallopian tube to the uterine cavity, the isthmus is the narrowest part near the uterus, and the infundibulum is the funnel-shaped end near the ovary, where the egg is captured after ovulation.
Which of the following is incorrect about oral contraceptive pill 'Saheli'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Saheli' is not a steroidal preparation, it is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive.
Which one of the following statements is NOT true about menstruation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The statement that menstrual flow has non-clotting blood is incorrect because menstrual blood can indeed clot. Choices A, B, and C are all true statements about menstruation. Choice A reflects the average amount of menstrual flow, choice B describes the components of menstrual flow, and choice C correctly identifies the ovarian hormones that influence the menstrual cycle.
What does Bidder's canal receive?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bidder's canal is a part of the male reproductive system and receives sperm from the testes. The other choices are incorrect because Bidder's canal is not associated with receiving eggs, ammonia, or oxygenated blood.
What is another name for the breast?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Mammary glands. The mammary glands are the specific glands in the breast responsible for producing milk. Sebaceous glands (choice A) are oil-producing glands in the skin, racemose glands (choice B) are not a recognized term, and axillary glands (choice D) refer to glands found in the armpit region, not the breast.
When does a broad ligament haematoma occur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A broad ligament hematoma occurs when there is a rupture in the mesenteric border of the tube. This typically happens due to trauma or other underlying conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a broad ligament hematoma specifically involves a rupture in the mesenteric border of the tube, not the ovarian ligament, broad ligament, or uterine wall.
Incomplete abortion is characterized by:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Incomplete abortion is characterized by an open os, which means that the cervix is dilated, allowing for passage of tissue. This condition typically presents with heavy bleeding as parts of the products of conception are expelled. Severe cramping may also be present due to uterine contractions. Therefore, the correct characteristic of incomplete abortion is an open os (Choice B). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as heavy bleeding and severe cramping are symptoms associated with incomplete abortion, but they do not specifically define it, and light bleeding is not characteristic of incomplete abortion.
Outlet of the true pelvis anteriorly bounded by:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Ischiopubic arch. The outlet of the true pelvis is indeed anteriorly bounded by the ischiopubic arch, which consists of the ischium and the pubic bones. This structure forms the lower boundary of the pelvic outlet. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect. The linea terminalis (pelvic brim) forms the upper boundary of the true pelvis, the coccyx is part of the bony pelvis but does not bound the pelvic outlet anteriorly, and the promontory of the sacrum is located in the posterior part of the pelvis, not the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet.
What lines the uterus?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Endometrium. The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus where the fertilized egg implants and develops during pregnancy. Myometrium (Choice B) is the middle layer of the uterus consisting of muscle tissue. Perimetrium (Choice C) is the outer layer of the uterus. Glandular tissue (Choice D) is a broad term referring to tissue containing glands, but it does not specifically line the uterus.
During the menstrual cycle, which hormone maintains the corpus luteum?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the menstrual cycle, luteinizing hormone maintains the corpus luteum. The correct answer is A. Luteinizing hormone stimulates the corpus luteum to produce progesterone. Choice B, Follicle-stimulating hormone, is involved in stimulating the growth of follicles in the ovaries. Choice C, Progesterone, is produced by the corpus luteum and plays a role in preparing the endometrium for implantation. Choice D, Relaxin, is involved in processes such as softening the cervix and ligaments during pregnancy, but it is not responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum.
Respect in reproductive health care involves:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Respect in reproductive health care entails treating patients with politeness, compassion, and without judgment. Choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the principles of respect and patient-centered care. It is essential to communicate respectfully, show compassion, and address patients' needs without passing judgment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ensuring consent through a form is important but not the sole aspect of respect. Ignoring patient requests for privacy goes against patient rights, and disregarding patient concerns is contrary to providing comprehensive care.
What is the most important factor in ensuring accessibility in reproductive health services?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Ensuring that primary health care (PHC) services are available within a reasonable distance. Accessibility in reproductive health services is crucial for ensuring that individuals can easily access the care they need. Option B is incorrect because requiring patients to access multiple services can create barriers to care. Option C is incorrect as accessibility should not be limited based on financial means. Option D is incorrect because healthcare services should be available in both urban and rural areas to reach a wider population.
What is one goal of family planning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Family planning aims to ensure that all couples and individuals have the basic right to decide freely and responsibly the number and spacing of their children. This promotes reproductive autonomy and allows individuals to make informed choices about their family size. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve imposing restrictions or decisions on family size rather than empowering individuals to make their own choices.
Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.
Laparoscopy uses a small instrument known as a laparoscope to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Laparoscopy uses a small instrument known as a laparoscope to take very detailed photographs of the pelvic organs. This procedure is commonly used for diagnostic purposes, to visualize internal organs, and to perform minimally invasive surgeries. Choice B, inserting a hysteroscope for D&C, is incorrect as hysteroscopy is a different procedure used to examine the inside of the uterus, not the pelvic organs. Choice C, performing an abortion procedure, is incorrect as laparoscopy is not used for abortion. Choice D, performing a hysterectomy, is incorrect as although laparoscopy can be used in some cases for hysterectomy, its primary purpose is not for this procedure.
Which one of the following is not associated with poor maternal outcome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cord prolapse is not typically associated with poor maternal outcomes. Acute placental hemorrhage (APH - choice A) and postpartum hemorrhage (PPH - choice B) can lead to maternal morbidity and mortality due to excessive blood loss. Pre-eclampsia (choice D) is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, which can result in severe maternal complications if not managed promptly. Cord prolapse, though concerning for fetal well-being, does not inherently pose direct risks to maternal health if managed appropriately, making it the correct answer in this context.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Estrogen is primarily responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics. Progesterone, while important in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy, is not primarily responsible for secondary sexual characteristics. Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone. Oxytocin is involved in labor, lactation, and social bonding, but not in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics.
After fertilization, cell division occurs through a process of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After fertilization, the zygote undergoes cell division through the process of mitosis. Mitosis is the type of cell division that results in two daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Choice A, binary fission, is a form of asexual reproduction in prokaryotes, not the process that occurs after fertilization in multicellular organisms. Choice B, meiosis, is a type of cell division that leads to the formation of gametes with half the number of chromosomes, not the process that occurs after fertilization. Choice C, budding, is a form of asexual reproduction seen in some organisms like yeast, but it is not the process of cell division after fertilization.
During the counseling session, you can also use the acronym, CLEAR. The letter E stands for:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Explain how to use the method.' In the acronym CLEAR, the letter E specifically refers to explaining how to use the method, emphasizing the importance of providing clear instructions and guidance to the client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent what the letter E stands for in the given context. Encouraging and assuring the client, discussing modern FP methods in detail, and explaining possible complications are important aspects of counseling but do not align with the specific focus of 'Explain how to use the method,' as indicated by the acronym.
Legislation allowing nursing staff to provide contraceptives has resulted in all of the following EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Male involvement in family planning services has not significantly resulted from legislation allowing nursing staff to provide contraceptives. While legislation has led to more nursing staff being trained, the emergence of population and family planning organizations, and enhanced implementation of programs, it has not directly impacted male involvement in family planning.
To minimize unsafe abortions, IRH has strengthened:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Post-abortion care and counseling services are crucial in reducing unsafe abortions by providing support, medical care, and guidance to individuals who have undergone abortions, ensuring their physical and emotional well-being. Strengthening the termination of pregnancy act (Choice A) might focus more on the legal aspects rather than the healthcare services needed post-abortion. The gender and violence unit of the police services (Choice C) is important for addressing gender-based violence but not directly related to reducing unsafe abortions. Empowering all women who want to abort (Choice D) is a broad concept that may not specifically address the need for comprehensive post-abortion care and counseling services.
Where does the ovum receive the sperm?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Zona pellucida.' The ovum receives the sperm at the zona pellucida, which is the glycoprotein layer surrounding the plasma membrane of the oocyte. This layer plays a crucial role in preventing polyspermy. Choices A and B, 'Animal pole' and 'Vegetal pole,' are incorrect as they refer to different regions of the egg and are not where the sperm fertilizes the ovum. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the sperm indeed interacts with the zona pellucida during fertilization.
In 1989, the national population policy was formally launched targeting:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because the national population policy launched in 1989 aimed at reducing population growth by making family planning services available, accessible, and affordable to all eligible users. Choice A is incorrect as it does not encompass the full scope of the policy objectives. Choice B is also incomplete as it focuses solely on availability without considering accessibility and affordability. Choice C is partially correct but lacks the comprehensive approach of the national population policy.
What is the content of the acrosome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Digestive enzymes. The acrosome is a structure found in sperm cells that contains enzymes used to penetrate the egg during fertilization. Choice A (Lipids) and Choice B (Hormones) are incorrect as the primary content of the acrosome is digestive enzymes, not lipids or hormones. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as the acrosome does contain a specific substance, which are digestive enzymes.
What is Carboprost used for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Carboprost is used in the management of post-partum haemorrhage. This medication helps to reduce excessive bleeding after childbirth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Carboprost does not affect milk production, relieve constriction ring, or induce labor.
When does missed abortion occur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Missed abortion occurs when the cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus. Choice A describes a missed abortion, not choice C. Choice B describes a complete abortion. Choice D describes a threatened abortion, where the cervix remains closed but there is heavy bleeding.
What is the purpose of Hysterosalpingo-contrast Sonography?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hysterosalpingo-contrast Sonography is a test used to check a woman's fallopian tubes with an X-ray and dye test called a hysterosalpingogram. This test is specifically designed to evaluate the patency of the fallopian tubes and the uterine cavity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the purpose of Hysterosalpingo-contrast Sonography.
What is the triangular space lying between the vaginal and rectal canals?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Perineum. The perineum is the triangular space located between the vaginal and rectal canals. It is a region containing various muscles, nerves, and blood vessels that support the pelvic floor. Choice A, Pelvic floor, refers to the structure supporting the organs in the pelvic cavity, not the space between the vaginal and rectal canals. Choice C, Vestibule, is the space within the labia minora containing the openings of the urethra and vagina, not the area between the vaginal and rectal canals. Choice D, Perineal body, is a fibromuscular mass in the perineum area but not the space between the vaginal and rectal canals.
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