Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional take during this procedure?

• A. Keeping the specimen chilled
• B. Saving the first urine specimen collected at the start time
• C. Discarding the last voided specimen at the end of the collection time
• D. Asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time. During a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided urine is discarded to ensure the test starts with an empty bladder. The specimen should be kept chilled, not at room temperature, to prevent bacterial growth. The last voided specimen is not discarded because it contributes to the total volume collected, so choice C is incorrect. Discarding the specimen and noting the start time is essential for accurate results in a timed quantitative determination like a 24-hour urine collection.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient who is newly admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse reviews the patient’s admission electrolytes and notes a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Administer the digoxin and monitor the patient’s electrocardiogram closely.
• B. Hold the digoxin dose and notify the provider of the patient’s lab values.
• C. Request an order for an intravenous bolus of potassium.
• D. Request an order for oral potassium supplements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient has a low serum potassium level, which can predispose the patient to digoxin toxicity. It is essential for the nurse to hold the digoxin dose and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal lab values. Option A is incorrect because administering digoxin without addressing the low potassium level can potentiate toxicity. Option C is inappropriate as potassium should not be given as an IV bolus, especially in the case of hypokalemia. Option D is incorrect because oral potassium supplements may not be sufficient for rapidly correcting severe hypokalemia in an acute care setting.

3. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about fluid restrictions by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can drink as much water as I want, as long as I limit my salt intake.
• B. I should limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• C. I can skip dialysis sessions if I feel tired.
• D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because clients with chronic renal failure should not skip dialysis sessions. Skipping dialysis can lead to serious complications and worsen the client's condition. It is crucial for clients to understand the importance of adhering to their dialysis schedule for optimal management of chronic renal failure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they demonstrate understanding of fluid restrictions, the need to limit fluid intake to prevent overload, and the importance of medication compliance, respectively. These statements show appropriate knowledge and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

4. An adult client is admitted with flank pain and is diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit
• B. Encourage turning and deep breathing
• C. Administer IV antibiotics as prescribed
• D. Auscultate for presence of bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a client diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis is to administer IV antibiotics as prescribed. Acute pyelonephritis is a serious kidney infection that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent systemic complications and worsening of the infection. While monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit (Choice A) is important, it is not the priority in the acute phase of infection. Encouraging turning and deep breathing (Choice B) and auscultating for bowel sounds (Choice D) are relevant aspects of care but do not take precedence over initiating antibiotic treatment to address the infection promptly.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer clarithromycin to a patient. When performing a medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Ask the provider if azithromycin may be used instead of clarithromycin.
• B. Obtain an order for continuous cardiovascular monitoring.
• C. Request an order for periodic serum warfarin levels.
• D. Withhold the clarithromycin and notify the provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient taking warfarin also needs to receive clarithromycin, it is essential to monitor periodic serum warfarin levels. Macrolides, including clarithromycin, can increase serum levels of drugs like warfarin. Monitoring serum drug levels helps ensure that the patient's warfarin dose can be adjusted, if necessary, to maintain therapeutic levels. Asking about using azithromycin instead is not the most appropriate action in this situation, as all macrolides can interact with warfarin. Continuous cardiovascular monitoring is not indicated solely based on the use of clarithromycin. Withholding the clarithromycin without proper assessment could delay necessary treatment and is not the best initial action.

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