HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. The client is admitted in active labor with a cervix that is 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part at 0 station. An hour later, the client expresses the need to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Palpate the client’s bladder.
- B. Check the pH of the vaginal fluid.
- C. Review the fetal heart rate pattern.
- D. Determine cervical dilation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize determining cervical dilation as it helps in assessing the progress of labor and ensures it is safe for the client to move. Changes in cervical dilation may indicate the advancement of labor, warranting appropriate interventions or restrictions on movement to prevent complications. While checking the client's bladder may be important to ensure it's not distended, determining cervical dilation takes precedence in this scenario. Checking the pH of the vaginal fluid is not relevant in this situation, and reviewing the fetal heart rate pattern, although important, is not the first action to take when the client expresses the need to go to the bathroom.
2. A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most important for the LPN/LVN to ask this client?
- A. Which symptom did you experience first?
- B. Are you consuming large amounts of salty foods?
- C. Have you traveled to a foreign country recently?
- D. Do you have a history of rheumatic fever?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rheumatic fever can lead to rheumatic heart disease, which may be exacerbated during pregnancy, causing symptoms like pedal edema and dyspnea. Asking about a history of rheumatic fever is crucial in this case to assess the potential impact on the client's current symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this scenario as they do not directly relate to the presenting symptoms and history of rheumatic fever.
3. At 35 weeks gestation, a client complains of 'pain whenever the baby moves.' The nurse notes a temperature of 101.2 F (38.4 C) with severe abdominal or uterine tenderness on palpation. What condition do these findings indicate?
- A. Round ligament strain.
- B. Chorioamnionitis.
- C. Abruptio placentae.
- D. Viral infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's symptoms of fever and abdominal tenderness, along with the gestational age, are classic signs of chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid. Chorioamnionitis is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Round ligament strain (Choice A) typically presents with sharp, stabbing pain on the sides of the abdomen and is not associated with fever or uterine tenderness. Abruptio placentae (Choice C) presents with sudden-onset vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain, often with a board-like uterus. Viral infections (Choice D) may present with a variety of symptoms, but the combination of fever, abdominal tenderness, and gestational age in this scenario points more towards chorioamnionitis.
4. When preparing a class on newborn care for expectant parents, what content should be taught concerning the newborn infant born at term gestation?
- A. Milia are white marks caused by sebaceous glands and typically resolve within 2 to 4 weeks.
- B. Meconium is the first stool and is typically dark green or black in color.
- C. Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance mainly found in skin folds, providing a protective layer.
- D. Pseudostrabismus in newborns usually self-resolves without the need for intervention.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance that acts as a protective barrier on the skin of newborns, particularly present in skin folds. It helps to prevent dehydration and protect the delicate skin of the newborn from the amniotic fluid in utero. Educating expectant parents about the presence and function of vernix caseosa can help them understand the importance of its preservation during the immediate postnatal period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the protective function of vernix caseosa in newborns. Milia are small, white bumps on the skin due to blocked oil glands, meconium is the first stool of a newborn and is typically dark green or black in color, and pseudostrabismus refers to false appearance of misalignment of the eyes, which usually resolves on its own without intervention.
5. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?
- A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
- B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
- C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
- D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.
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