HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. A 7-year-old child with type 1 diabetes is brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse notes that the child's blood glucose level is 350 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
- B. Administer insulin as prescribed
- C. Monitor the child's urine output
- D. Check the child's urine for ketones
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a child with type 1 diabetes presenting with abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a high blood glucose level, the priority is to administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which are crucial in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering insulin without addressing fluid deficits can lead to further complications. While monitoring urine output and checking for ketones are important steps in the care of a child with diabetes, the immediate focus should be on correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances through IV fluid administration to stabilize the child's condition.
2. A child with a fever of 39°C (102.2°F) and a sore throat is brought to the clinic. The practical nurse suspects the child has streptococcal pharyngitis. Which diagnostic test should the practical nurse prepare the child for?
- A. Rapid antigen detection test.
- B. Throat culture.
- C. Complete blood count (CBC).
- D. Chest X-ray.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A rapid antigen detection test is the appropriate diagnostic test for suspected streptococcal pharyngitis. This test is commonly used due to its quick results, helping in the prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment of the condition. It specifically detects the presence of streptococcal antigens in the throat, aiding in confirming the diagnosis and guiding the healthcare provider in determining the most suitable treatment plan. Throat culture (Choice B) is a confirmatory test but is not as rapid as the rapid antigen detection test. Complete blood count (Choice C) and Chest X-ray (Choice D) are not specific tests for streptococcal pharyngitis and would not aid in confirming the diagnosis.
3. The infant scheduled for reduction of intussusception passes a soft-formed brown stool the day before the scheduled procedure. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the parents that the infant needs to be NPO.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of brown stool.
- C. Obtain a stool specimen for laboratory analysis.
- D. Ask the parents about recent changes in the infant's diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial in this situation because the passage of a brown stool may indicate the resolution of intussusception. It is important to keep the healthcare provider informed about any changes in the infant's condition to ensure appropriate care and management. Instructing the parents that the infant needs to be NPO (nothing by mouth) is not necessary based on the passage of brown stool. Obtaining a stool specimen for laboratory analysis is not indicated in this scenario since the brown stool is likely a positive sign. Asking about recent changes in the infant's diet is not the priority at this moment as notifying the healthcare provider takes precedence.
4. What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?
- A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
- B. Encourage the child to cough and take deep breaths.
- C. Report the findings to the healthcare provider.
- D. Identify the triggers that precipitated this attack.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.
5. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer morphine sulfate.
- B. Start IV fluids.
- C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
- D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.
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