Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of intravenous ceftriaxone (Rocephin) to a patient. When reviewing the patient’s chart, the nurse notes that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking amoxicillin. What is the nurse’s next action?

• A. Administer the drug and observe closely for hypersensitivity reactions.
• B. Ask the provider whether a cephalosporin from a different generation may be used.
• C. Contact the provider to report drug hypersensitivity.
• D. Notify the provider and suggest an oral cephalosporin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient has a history of a rash with amoxicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic like ceftriaxone should be administered cautiously due to a possible cross-reactivity. The nurse should still administer the drug but closely monitor the patient for any signs of hypersensitivity reactions. Asking for a different generation of cephalosporin or suggesting an oral form does not address the potential cross-reactivity issue. Contacting the provider to report drug hypersensitivity would delay care when the patient needs immediate treatment.

2. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• B. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid volume.
• C. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• D. Keep the patient in a supine position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is crucial for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) because it helps promote venous drainage from the brain, thereby reducing ICP. Keeping the head of the bed elevated helps facilitate cerebral perfusion and can prevent a further increase in ICP. Administering diuretics (Choice B) may be considered in some cases to reduce fluid volume, but it is not the most critical intervention for immediate ICP management. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) is not typically indicated for managing increased ICP unless there is a specific underlying condition requiring their use. Keeping the patient in a supine position (Choice D) can actually worsen ICP by impeding venous outflow from the brain, making it an incorrect choice for this scenario.

3. After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will not take this drug with food or milk.
• B. If I suspect pregnancy, I will discontinue the drug.
• C. An orange color in my urine should not alarm me.
• D. I will consume two glasses of cranberry juice daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine commonly discolors urine to a deep reddish orange, which can be mistaken for blood. It is important for the client to understand that this color change is an expected side effect and should not be a cause for alarm. Additionally, the urine can stain clothing. There are no dietary restrictions or precautions related to food or milk intake while taking phenazopyridine. Stopping the medication if suspecting pregnancy is not necessary as phenazopyridine is safe to use during pregnancy. Drinking cranberry juice is not directly related to the use of phenazopyridine and is not a specific instruction given for managing bacterial cystitis.

4. A 70-kg adult with chronic renal failure is on a 40-g protein diet. The client has a reduced glomerular filtration rate and is not undergoing dialysis. Which result would give the nurse the most concern?

• A. Albumin level of 2.5 g/dL
• B. Phosphorus level of 5 mg/dL
• C. Sodium level of 135 mmol/L
• D. Potassium level of 5.5 mmol/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, a protein-restricted diet is crucial to prevent the buildup of waste products. A low albumin level (<3.5 g/dL) indicates inadequate protein intake, raising concern as it may lead to malnutrition and tissue breakdown. Phosphorus, sodium, and potassium levels are not directly impacted by protein intake. Phosphorus levels may elevate in renal failure, but at 5 mg/dL, it is within normal range. Sodium and potassium levels are also within normal limits and not influenced by protein restriction.

5. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?

• A. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
• B. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L).
• C. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin.
• D. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.

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