Free HESI Biology practice for Biology Practice Test (HESI RN). Answer 44 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on Nurs
Which of the following is not true of mitosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Mitosis occurs in diploid cells and involves stages that result in the production of two identical daughter cells. Haploids do not undergo mitosis, as mitosis is a process specific to diploid cells. Choice A is true as mitosis does produce daughter cells. Choice B is incorrect as mitosis typically consists of four main stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Choice D is true, as one of the main outcomes of mitosis is the production of daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
The liver is an organ responsible for detoxifying the body of many harmful substances. You might expect the liver to contain a high amount of which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. The liver contains a high amount of smooth endoplasmic reticulum because it plays a significant role in detoxification processes, such as the synthesis of detoxifying enzymes and lipids. Choice A (Rough endoplasmic reticulum) is incorrect because the rough endoplasmic reticulum is more involved in protein synthesis and processing. Choice C (Mitochondria) is incorrect as mitochondria are primarily responsible for energy production. Choice D (Lysosomes) is incorrect because lysosomes are organelles involved in intracellular digestion and waste removal, not specifically related to detoxification.
The Punnett square shows that one parent carries the recessive gene for a cleft chin (c) while the other parent does not. What percentage of the parents' offspring is predicted to have a cleft chin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 0%. If one parent carries the recessive gene for a cleft chin while the other parent does not, none of the offspring will express the recessive phenotype. This is because in order for a child to have a cleft chin, they would need to inherit the recessive gene from both parents. Therefore, although the offspring could be carriers of the gene, none are predicted to have a cleft chin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the presence of the recessive gene in one parent and its absence in the other would not result in any offspring showing the cleft chin trait.
In which step of cellular respiration is the most adenosine triphosphate (ATP) created?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The electron transport chain is the step in cellular respiration that generates the most ATP. During this step, up to 34 ATP molecules can be produced from a single glucose molecule. Choice B, Glycolysis, produces a smaller amount of ATP (2 ATP molecules per glucose), and choice C, Citric acid cycle, produces some ATP but not as much as the electron transport chain. Choice D is incorrect because different steps of cellular respiration produce varying amounts of ATP, with the electron transport chain being the most efficient in ATP generation.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. DNA has one less oxygen atom in its sugar molecule (deoxyribose) compared to RNA, which has a ribose sugar. Choice A is incorrect because RNA does not have an extra phosphate group. Choice C is incorrect as RNA actually has one more oxygen atom than DNA. Choice D is incorrect as DNA and RNA have different sugar molecules, with DNA having deoxyribose and RNA having ribose.
What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Saturated fatty acids contain no double bonds between the carbon atoms in their hydrocarbon chains, making them more solid at room temperature. Choice A is incorrect because there is a significant difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately states that saturated fatty acids contain double bonds, which is a property of unsaturated fatty acids. Choice C is also incorrect as saturated fatty acids do not contain double bonds, let alone two or more pairs of double bonds.
Who discovered the basic principles of genetics using garden peas?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Mendel. Gregor Mendel is known as the father of genetics for his groundbreaking work with pea plants. He discovered the basic principles of heredity through his experiments, establishing the foundation of modern genetics. Choice A, Curie, is incorrect as Marie Curie was a physicist and chemist known for her pioneering research on radioactivity. Choice C, Hawking, is incorrect as Stephen Hawking was a theoretical physicist known for his work on black holes and cosmology. Choice D, Galileo, is incorrect as Galileo Galilei was an astronomer and physicist renowned for his contributions to the scientific revolution, particularly in astronomy.
Proteins are polymers of 20 molecules called:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proteins are indeed polymers made up of amino acids. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, where each protein has a unique sequence of amino acids that determines its structure and function. Phospholipids, carbohydrates, and fatty acids are not molecules that make up proteins. Phospholipids are the main components of cell membranes, carbohydrates are sugars used for energy and structural purposes, and fatty acids are building blocks of lipids.
Which of the following options correctly lists biology's hierarchical organizational system?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct hierarchical organizational system in biology is Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, and Species. This follows the mnemonic 'King Phillip Came Over For Good Soup.' Choice A is incorrect as it does not follow the correct hierarchical order. Choice C is incorrect as it starts with Genus, which is more specific and should come after Family. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the correct hierarchical order.
What is located on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes, not microvilli, mitochondria, or lysosomes. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis, making them an essential component of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Which of the following makes it possible to predict the genotype and phenotype of the offspring of sexual reproduction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Punnett square. A Punnett square is a tool specifically designed to predict the genotype and phenotype combinations of offspring resulting from a particular cross or breeding experiment. It helps in understanding the probability of different genotypes and phenotypes appearing in the offspring. Choice B, Chi-square, is a statistical test used to determine if there is a significant difference between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in a study. Choice C, Microscope, is used for viewing tiny structures and organisms, not for predicting genetic outcomes. Choice D, None of these, is incorrect as Punnett square is a valid tool for predicting genetic outcomes in offspring.
What percentage of the parents' offspring is predicted to have a cleft chin if one parent carries the recessive gene for a cleft chin (c) while the other parent does not?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C (0%). If one parent carries the recessive gene for a cleft chin while the other parent does not carry it, none of their offspring is predicted to have a cleft chin. This is because the cleft chin trait is recessive, so for an offspring to express this trait, they would need to inherit the gene from both parents. In this scenario, none of the offspring will inherit the recessive gene from both parents, so the percentage of offspring predicted to have a cleft chin is 0%. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in this situation, the offspring will not express the cleft chin phenotype, although they could be carriers of the recessive gene.
Which of the following is a group of three RNA nucleotides?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B - A codon. A codon is a sequence of three RNA nucleotides that specifies a particular amino acid or a stop signal during protein synthesis. Choice A, a stop codon, is a sequence of three nucleotides that signals the termination of protein synthesis. Choice C, an anticodon, is a group of three nucleotides found in tRNA that pairs with the complementary codon in mRNA. Choice D, tRNA, stands for transfer RNA, which is a type of RNA that carries amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis.
Where can ribosomes be found inside a cell?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ribosomes can be found attached to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) or free-floating in the cytoplasm. The correct answer is A because ribosomes are responsible for synthesizing proteins and are commonly found on the ER or in the cytoplasm. Choice B is incorrect because ribosomes are not typically located within the cellular membrane. Choice C is incorrect as ribosomes are not attached to the Golgi apparatus; instead, they are involved in protein synthesis. Choice D is incorrect as ribosomes are not found within the nucleus but rather in the cytoplasm or attached to the ER.
A water molecule contains two types of atoms that are covalently bonded. Which of the following makes up a water molecule?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. A water molecule consists of two hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one oxygen atom. This forms a stable structure known as H2O. Choice A is incorrect as water molecule contains two hydrogen atoms. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct composition of a water molecule.
What is the main objective of the translation stage of protein synthesis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The main objective of the translation stage of protein synthesis is to produce proteins. During translation, ribosomes decode mRNA sequences to synthesize proteins by linking amino acids together. Choice A, 'To produce amino acids,' is incorrect as amino acids are the building blocks of proteins and are not produced during translation. Choices B and C, 'To produce nucleotides' and 'To produce fatty acids,' are also incorrect as these molecules are not the direct products of the translation stage of protein synthesis.
Which of the following is often referred to as the powerhouse of the cell?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they generate most of the cell's supply of ATP, which is the energy currency used for various cellular processes. The nucleus (Choice A) is the control center of the cell, housing genetic material. Chromatin (Choice B) is a complex of DNA and proteins within the nucleus. Ribosomes (Choice D) are responsible for protein synthesis and not the primary energy production in the cell.
The term pleiotropy is best defined as which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pleiotropy is best defined as one gene influencing multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits. This phenomenon showcases the multifunctionality of genes, where a single gene can have effects on various aspects of an organism's phenotype. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately capture the concept of pleiotropy. Option A refers to gene expression, not pleiotropy. Option C describes genetic interactions but not in the context of pleiotropy. Option D talks about missing genes, which is unrelated to the definition of pleiotropy.
Which of the following correctly identifies the two types of cells?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Prokaryotic and eukaryotic. Cells are classified into two major types: prokaryotic, which lack a nucleus, and eukaryotic, which have a defined nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Choice A, mitosis and meiosis, refers to cell division processes. Choice B, mitochondrion and chloroplast, are cell organelles involved in energy production and photosynthesis, respectively. Choice C, genotype and phenotype, relate to genetic characteristics and physical traits, not cell types.
Which of the following molecules contains the code required for replication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). DNA contains the genetic information essential for replication, ensuring the accurate transmission of genetic material from one generation to the next. Choice B, Transfer RNA (tRNA), is involved in protein synthesis, not replication. Choice C, Messenger RNA (mRNA), carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosome but does not contain the code for replication. Choice D, Ribonucleic acid (RNA), is a broader category that includes both mRNA and tRNA, but the specific molecule containing the code required for replication is DNA.
Which of the following is not one of the four nitrogenous bases that make up the DNA structure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Uracil. Uracil is found in RNA, not DNA. The four nitrogenous bases in DNA are adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine. Choice A, Adenine, is a nitrogenous base in DNA. Choice B, Guanine, is another nitrogenous base in DNA. Choice D, Thymine, is also one of the four nitrogenous bases in DNA. Therefore, the correct answer is Uracil (Choice C).
In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced from:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: "46 to 23." In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced by half to form gametes for sexual reproduction. In humans, where the diploid chromosome number is 46, meiosis results in haploid cells with 23 chromosomes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the correct reduction in chromosome number during meiosis.
The cellular membrane contributes to all except which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The cellular membrane is involved in regulating cell permeability, communication, and protection. However, it is not directly involved in energy production. Choice A is the correct answer because the cellular membrane does not produce energy; instead, it regulates the passage of molecules in and out of the cell. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the cell membrane plays key roles in controlling what enters and exits the cell, facilitating communication between cells, and providing structural support and protection to the cell.
Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of lipids and steroid hormones?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the correct organelle responsible for the synthesis of lipids, including phospholipids, cholesterol, and steroid hormones. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is primarily involved in protein synthesis and processing, making choice A incorrect. The Golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids for transportation, so it is not directly involved in lipid and steroid hormone synthesis, making choice C incorrect. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis and are not involved in lipid or steroid hormone synthesis, making choice D incorrect.
Which of the following organelles is known as the cell's transportation center?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Endoplasmic reticulum. The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis and transport of proteins and lipids within the cell. The Golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids for transport. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell, producing energy in the form of ATP. Lysosomes are involved in the digestion and recycling of cellular waste.
Which of the following serves as the information processing and administrative center of the cell?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, the nucleus. The nucleus is indeed the information processing and administrative center of the cell as it contains the genetic material (DNA) and is responsible for controlling cellular activities. The Golgi apparatus (Choice A) is involved in processing and packaging proteins, the cytoplasm (Choice B) is the fluid that fills the cell and provides a medium for organelles to be suspended, and lysosomes (Choice D) are responsible for digesting waste materials and foreign invaders. Therefore, the nucleus is the most appropriate choice for the given function.
Which of the following is the term used to represent alternative versions of a gene?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Alleles. Alleles are different versions of a gene that can exist at a specific locus on a chromosome. This term specifically refers to the different forms of a gene that can exist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent alternative versions of a gene. Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in single-celled organisms, while heterozygous and homozygous refer to the genetic makeup of an individual rather than alternative versions of a gene.
Which of the following molecules acts as the genetic code's messenger?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is RNA. RNA, particularly mRNA, serves as the messenger that carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosome, where proteins are synthesized. Proteins (choice B) are not the genetic code's messenger; they are synthesized based on the information carried by RNA. DNA (choice C) stores the genetic information but does not directly act as the messenger. Carbohydrates (choice D) are not involved in transmitting genetic information.
What percentage of the offspring of the parents is predicted to have a cleft chin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When one parent carries the recessive gene for a cleft chin and the other does not, there is a 25% chance of the offspring inheriting the cleft chin. This is due to the fact that the trait follows a simple Mendelian inheritance pattern, where the offspring would need to inherit the recessive gene from both parents to express the trait. Therefore, 25% of the offspring are predicted to have a cleft chin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the likelihood of inheriting a cleft chin in this specific scenario is 25%, not 50%, 0%, or 75%.
The bilayer of the cellular membrane consists of phospholipids with all except which of the following scattered throughout?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The cellular membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer with cholesterol, proteins, and glycoproteins distributed throughout. Nucleic acids are not found within the cellular membrane. Cholesterol helps maintain membrane fluidity, while proteins and glycoproteins play important roles in cell signaling, transport, and structural support.
Prophase is the first stage of mitosis. Which of the following best describes chromosomes during this stage?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. During prophase, the chromosomes condense and become visible as distinct structures under a microscope. Choice A is incorrect as chromosomes are not gathered on either side of the separating cell during prophase. Choice B is incorrect because chromosomes align along the metaphase plate during the subsequent stage, metaphase. Choice C is incorrect as chromosomes become attached to the spindle fibers during prometaphase, the stage following prophase.
Water is a polar molecule that can be:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Water is a polar molecule due to an uneven distribution of electrons, allowing it to form hydrogen bonds. This property makes water both cohesive (attracted to itself) and adhesive (attracted to other substances). Choice A is incorrect because water is not corrosive; rather, it is a solvent. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not describe the cohesive and adhesive properties of water.
What is the composition of the cellular membrane?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The cellular membrane is primarily composed of a phospholipid bilayer, which consists of two layers of phospholipid molecules. These molecules have a hydrophilic (water-attracting) head and hydrophobic (water-repelling) tail, creating a barrier that separates the internal cellular environment from the external surroundings. While proteins are embedded within this bilayer and act as transport channels, receptors, and structural support, carbohydrates are found on the outer surface of the membrane for cell recognition and signaling purposes. Therefore, the correct answer is a bilayer of phospholipid molecules.
What is the most significant contributor to cellular function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Proteins. Proteins are the most significant contributor to cellular function as they play crucial roles in almost all biological processes. They act as enzymes that catalyze reactions, are involved in cell signaling pathways, and provide structural support to cells. Phospholipids (Choice B), while important for cell membrane structure, do not have the same diverse functions as proteins in cellular processes. Carbohydrates (Choice C) primarily serve as an energy source and structural components but are not as versatile in cellular functions as proteins. Fatty acids (Choice D) are essential components of cell membranes and energy storage molecules but do not have the same broad range of functions as proteins in cellular processes.
Which of the following best describes phenotype?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'All the observable characteristics of an organism.' Phenotype refers to all the observable characteristics of an organism, such as physical appearance, behavior, and other traits, which result from the interaction of its genotype with the environment. Choice A is incorrect because it describes genotype. Choice B is incorrect as it defines genotype, not phenotype. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the genotype, the genetic information inherited from both parents, rather than the observable traits.
In the hierarchical organizational system, which of these is the most restrictive category?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the biological classification hierarchy, species is the most specific level, defining individual organisms that can interbreed. While genus, class, and kingdom are also categories in the hierarchy, they are broader and encompass a wider range of organisms compared to species. Genus groups together similar species, class groups similar orders, and kingdom is the broadest category grouping together similar phyla.
What is the smallest and most basic unit of matter?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Atom. An atom is the smallest unit of matter that retains the properties of an element. Choice A, Micromolecule, is incorrect because molecules are composed of atoms bonded together, making them larger than individual atoms. Choice C, Organelle, is incorrect as organelles are structures within cells, not the basic unit of matter. Choice D, Molecule, is incorrect as molecules are made up of atoms bonded together, so they are not the smallest unit of matter.
Which of the following provides support and shape to the cell?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Microtubules are fundamental components of the cytoskeleton in a cell, playing a crucial role in providing structural support and maintaining the cell's shape. They are composed of tubulin protein subunits and are involved in various cellular processes like cell division, intracellular transport, and cell motility. Microfilaments, on the other hand, are involved in cell movement and maintaining cell shape but are not primarily responsible for supporting the cell's overall structure. Cilia and microvilli are cellular projections that aid in movement and absorption, respectively, but they do not play a significant role in providing structural support to the cell.
What is located on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis. Ribosomes are the correct answer because they are the organelles directly associated with the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Microvilli (choice A), mitochondria (choice B), and lysosomes (choice C) are not typically located on the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Microvilli are found on the surface of cells to increase surface area, mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell responsible for energy production, and lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing digestive enzymes.
During which stage of mitosis does the nuclear envelope begin to disappear and the chromosomes start attaching to the spindle forming along the cell's axis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Prometaphase. During prometaphase, the nuclear envelope disintegrates, and chromosomes start attaching to spindle fibers. In metaphase, chromosomes align in the middle of the cell. Anaphase is characterized by the separation of sister chromatids, and prophase involves the condensation of chromosomes and the beginning of spindle formation.
At the beginning of meiosis, how many chromosomes does the diploid parent cell have?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 46. At the start of meiosis, the diploid parent cell contains 46 chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved, resulting in each gamete having 23 chromosomes. Choice A (23) is incorrect because that is the number of chromosomes in a human gamete, not the parent cell. Choice B (24) and Choice D (54) are also incorrect as they do not reflect the correct number of chromosomes in a diploid parent cell at the beginning of meiosis.
What is the most important function of carbohydrates?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important function of carbohydrates is to store and provide energy for the body through metabolic processes. Carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is used as the primary source of energy for various cellular functions. Choice B is incorrect because amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, not directly created by carbohydrates. Choice C is incorrect as the regulation of body temperature is primarily controlled by mechanisms such as sweating and shivering, not carbohydrates. Choice D is incorrect as insulation of body organs against shock is mainly provided by adipose tissue, not carbohydrates.
Protein synthesis begins with a process known as transcription. What is produced during this process?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: An RNA strand. During transcription, the DNA template is used to produce an RNA strand, not a codon, DNA helix, or another DNA strand. A codon is a sequence of nucleotides that specifies a particular amino acid during translation, not produced during transcription. A DNA helix refers to the double-stranded structure of DNA, which is not produced during transcription. Another DNA strand is not produced during transcription since the process involves creating an RNA copy of a specific gene.
What is the primary method of asexual reproduction used by most bacteria?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Binary fission. This is the main process through which most bacteria reproduce asexually. During binary fission, a single cell divides into two identical cells, each containing a copy of the genetic material. Choices A and B, meiosis and mitosis, are processes involved in sexual reproduction and are not used by bacteria for asexual reproduction. Choice D, interphase, is a stage of the cell cycle where the cell prepares for division and is not a method of reproduction.
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