Free HESI Adult Health Nursing practice for Adult Health 2 HESI Quizlet (HESI RN). Answer 26 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progre
An older patient receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. The elevated serum sodium level (154 mEq/L) is consistent with the patient's neurologic symptoms of restlessness, agitation, and weakness, indicating a need for immediate action to prevent complications like seizures. The potassium level (3.4 mEq/L) and calcium level (7.8 mg/dL) are slightly off from normal but do not require immediate action. The phosphate level (4.8 mg/dL) is normal and not related to the symptoms presented by the patient.
When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued, and is experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client's laboratory values to validate the existence of which?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Generalized weakness, muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are manifestations of hypokalemia. Checking the potassium level is essential in this case. Hypocalcemia typically presents with facial muscle spasms, not the symptoms mentioned. Hypermagnesemia does not typically cause the symptoms described. It's important to note that orange juice is high in potassium and would be advisable to drink if the patient was hypokalemic. Loose stools are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
The nurse in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague's assignment. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Viewing the EHR of a client who is not under your care is a violation of HIPAA regulations, regardless of the client's social status or your curiosity. The appropriate action to take in this situation is to communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse. The charge nurse can then escalate the issue through the appropriate channels within the organization. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures that the incident is handled internally and in accordance with organizational policies and procedures. Sending an email to facility administration, writing an anonymous complaint to a professional website, or posting a comment on a staff discussion board are not the recommended actions as they may not address the issue effectively and could potentially violate confidentiality further.
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe fatigue and confusion. Laboratory studies are done. Which laboratory value will require the most immediate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A serum calcium level of 18 mg/dL is significantly elevated, posing a high risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. Immediate action is required to initiate cardiac monitoring and notify the healthcare provider. While the abnormalities in arterial blood pH, serum potassium, and arterial oxygen saturation also need attention, they are not as immediately life-threatening as the critically high serum calcium level. Therefore, addressing the serum calcium level takes precedence in this scenario.
A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient's pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), and the HCO3 is also below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating an acidic environment, which is consistent with metabolic acidosis. The ABGs provided do not support respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, as the PaCO2 is within the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) despite the patient's deep, rapid respirations. Therefore, the correct interpretation is metabolic acidosis.
The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is providing a total bed bath for a confused and lethargic client. The UAP is soaking the client's foot in a basin of warm water placed on the bed. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice (B) is the correct action for the nurse to take in this situation. Ensuring that the UAP dries between the client's toes completely is crucial to prevent skin breakdown due to excessive moisture. While keeping the client's feet clean is important, maintaining dryness is paramount for skin integrity. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect: (A) removing the basin of water immediately may disrupt the care process without addressing the root issue, (C) advising the UAP that the procedure is damaging to the skin is not as immediate or specific to the observed problem, and (D) adding skin cream to the water may not address the need for drying the client's toes thoroughly.
At 01:00 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client has a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating an intention to sleep. Therefore, offering a PRN sedative-hypnotic (C) is unnecessary, especially since it is a stronger sleep aid. Option (D) is not needed as the client already has a plan to address his sleeplessness. Assessing the surgical dressing (B) is not relevant to the client's immediate need for sleep. Leaving the room and closing the door (A) is the appropriate action to provide a conducive environment for the client to rest.
When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because the absence of patellar and triceps reflexes indicates potential magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and lethargy are common side effects of elevated magnesium levels and should be reported, but they are not as critical as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. Decreased breath sounds suggest the need for coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis, which is important but not as urgent as addressing magnesium toxicity.
IV potassium chloride (KCl) 60 mEq is prescribed for the treatment of a patient with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Rapid IV infusion of KCl can lead to cardiac arrest due to its potential for causing hyperkalemia. While KCl can be administered through peripheral veins, central venous lines are not necessary unless specified. It is crucial to continue cardiac monitoring during potassium infusion to promptly identify and manage any potential dysrhythmias that may occur.
An older adult patient who is malnourished presents to the emergency department with a serum protein level of 5.2 g/dL. The nurse would expect which clinical manifestation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Edema. The normal range for total protein is 6.4 to 8.3 g/dL. Low serum protein levels cause a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure and allow fluid to remain in interstitial tissues, causing edema. Confusion, restlessness, and pallor are not associated with low serum protein levels. Pallor is more commonly seen in anemia, confusion and restlessness may be related to other issues like electrolyte imbalances or neurological conditions.
The home health nurse cares for an alert and oriented older adult patient with a history of dehydration. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient related to fluid intake?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. An alert, older patient can self-assess for signs of dehydration like dry mouth. This instruction is appropriate as it encourages the patient to respond to early signs of dehydration. Choice B is incorrect because the thirst mechanism decreases with age and feeling thirsty may not accurately indicate the need for fluids. Choice C is incorrect as many older patients prefer to limit evening fluid intake to enhance sleep quality. Choice D is incorrect because an older adult who is lethargic or confused may not be able to accurately assess their need for fluids.
A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.
Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released to allow for quick intervention if necessary. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice A) may make it more difficult to release quickly in an emergency. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists (Choice B) may compromise circulation and cause discomfort. Moving the ties to secure the restraints to the side rails (Choice D) is not the appropriate action as it can limit the client's movement and access to care.
A patient who has been receiving diuretic therapy is admitted to the emergency department with a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should alert the healthcare provider immediately that the patient is on which medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Hypokalemia increases the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. Therefore, with a low potassium level, the nurse should immediately alert the healthcare provider about the patient being on oral digoxin. Choices B, C, and D do not pose as much concern with the given potassium level. However, further assessment is still required for these medications.
A nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with chronic heart failure who forgot to take prescribed medications and seems confused. The patient complains of "just blowing up" and has peripheral edema and shortness of breath. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Increases in extracellular fluid (ECF) can lead to swelling of cells in the central nervous system, initially causing confusion, which may progress to coma or seizures. Although skin turgor, capillary refill, and heart sounds also may be affected by increases in ECF, these are signs that do not have as immediate impact on patient outcomes as cerebral edema.
How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results for a patient who had a tracheostomy placed after a motor vehicle crash: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient's pH of 7.48 indicates alkalosis, and the low PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg suggests a respiratory cause. The HCO3 level is normal, ruling out metabolic causes. Therefore, the correct interpretation is respiratory alkalosis. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the pH and PaCO2 values provided.
A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for different levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
This is a medication error, and the first step in addressing it is to assess for any side effects of the medication on the patient. Some analgesics can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to monitor for vital sign changes or respiratory distress. Once the patient is stable, the next steps would include contacting the provider, documenting the response, and completing a medication error report. Choices B, C, and D are not the immediate priority when dealing with a medication error. While documenting the client's responses and completing a medication error report are important, assessing for side effects and ensuring patient safety come first.
The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe? (Select all that apply).
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Around the nostrils.' Constant pressure from the tubing may create skin damage to the areas of skin and bony prominences the nasal cannula will be resting on, including around the nostrils. Choice A, 'Tops of the ears,' is incorrect as the cannula does not rest on the ears. Choice B, 'Bridge of the nose,' is incorrect because the cannula typically rests under the nose. Choice D, 'Over the cheeks,' is also incorrect as the cannula does not typically rest on the cheeks.
While changing a client's post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important action for the nurse to take when a client has a positive MRSA and presents with a wound showing signs of infection is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA is highly contagious and placing the patient on contact precautions helps prevent the spread of the bacteria to others in the healthcare setting. (A) Forcing oral fluids will not directly address the MRSA infection. (B) Requesting a nutrition consult is not the priority in this situation. (D) Limiting visitors to immediate family only is not necessary as MRSA precautions are primarily focused on healthcare workers and close contacts who provide direct care.
When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient's food tray?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Milk carton. Foods high in phosphate, like milk and other dairy products, are restricted on low-phosphate diets to manage renal failure. Green, leafy vegetables, high-fat foods, and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted. Therefore, grape juice, mixed green salad, and fried chicken breast do not need to be removed from the patient's food tray.
A patient has a serum calcium level of 7.0 mEq/L. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A - 'The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor.' Hypocalcemia can cause laryngeal stridor, which may lead to respiratory arrest. Rapid action is required to correct the patient's calcium level to prevent a life-threatening situation. Choices B, C, and D are also symptoms of hypocalcemia, but laryngeal stridor takes precedence due to its potential to quickly progress to a critical condition.
The long-term care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements for an older resident who has a low serum total protein level. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient's condition has improved?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The decrease in peripheral edema indicates an improvement in the patient's protein status. Edema is caused by low oncotic pressure in individuals with low serum protein levels. Good skin turgor is an indicator of fluid balance, not protein status. A low hematocrit could be caused by poor protein intake. Blood pressure does not provide a useful clinical tool for monitoring protein status.
A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check the patient's blood pressure. Given the patient's symptoms of frequent, watery stools, there is a concern for fluid volume deficit. Assessing the blood pressure helps determine the patient's perfusion status, which is crucial in managing fluid volume deficits. While obtaining baseline weight, drawing blood for serum electrolyte levels, and asking about extremity numbness or tingling are important assessments, checking the blood pressure takes precedence as it provides immediate information on the patient's circulatory status.
What is the first action the nurse should take when a patient complains of acute chest pain and dyspnea soon after insertion of a centrally inserted IV catheter?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take when a patient complains of acute chest pain and dyspnea after the insertion of a centrally inserted IV catheter is to auscultate the patient's breath sounds. This is important to assess for any potential complications such as embolism or pneumothorax, which can present with such symptoms. Auscultation can provide immediate information on the patient's respiratory status and guide further interventions. Notifying the health care provider, offering reassurance, or administering morphine should only be considered after assessing the patient's condition through auscultation.
Which task can the registered nurse (RN) caring for a critically ill patient with multiple IV lines delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An experienced LPN/LVN can monitor IV sites for signs of infection because it falls within their education, experience, and scope of practice. Administering IV antibiotics through an implantable port, adjusting infusion rates, and removing central catheters are tasks that require RN level education and scope of practice. These activities involve a higher level of assessment, critical thinking, and potential complications that are typically within the RN's domain.
A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction and is complaining of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient's respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient's respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurse's first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.