Free HESI Obstetrics and Pediatrics practice for Pediatric HESI (HESI RN). Answer 68 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress track
When caring for a child with Kawasaki disease, which symptom is the most significant for making this diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Erythema of the hands and feet is a key diagnostic criterion for Kawasaki disease. This, along with other symptoms like fever and strawberry tongue, helps in making the diagnosis. While desquamation of the palms and soles, cervical lymphadenopathy, and strawberry tongue are associated with Kawasaki disease, the presence of erythema of the hands and feet is particularly significant in diagnosing this condition.
When should a mother introduce solid foods to her 4-month-old baby girl? The mother states, 'My mother says I should put rice cereal in the baby's bottle now.' The nurse should instruct the mother to introduce solid foods when her child exhibits which behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Opens mouth when food comes her way.' This behavior indicates readiness to start trying solid foods. Infants should be introduced to solid foods based on developmental cues, such as showing an interest in food and the ability to accept it. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of readiness for solid foods. Stopping rooting when hungry is a reflex that may persist beyond the readiness for solids. Awakening for nighttime feedings is a normal behavior for a 4-month-old, and transitioning from a bottle to a cup is a later developmental milestone.
The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'how can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should inform the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family. This genetic condition is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome. Females are usually carriers of the gene mutation and may pass it on to their sons. Daughters of carrier mothers have a 50% chance of being carriers themselves. Understanding the genetics of DMD can help the parents make informed decisions about family planning and genetic counseling.
What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.
The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of thyroid therapy used to treat a 5-month-old with hypothyroidism. Which behavior indicates that the treatment has been effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The ability to laugh readily and turn from back to side indicates the effectiveness of thyroid therapy and normal development in a 5-month-old. These behaviors suggest improved muscle tone and motor skills, which are positive outcomes of thyroid hormone replacement therapy for hypothyroidism. Choices B, C, and D describe developmental milestones that are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of thyroid therapy in treating hypothyroidism in a 5-month-old.
When reviewing developmental changes with the parents of a 6-month-old infant, what information should the practical nurse reinforce?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because providing a developmentally safe environment for a 6-month-old infant is crucial as they begin to explore their surroundings more actively. This includes ensuring that the environment is free of hazards and that the infant is supervised to prevent accidents. Choice A is incorrect because self-feeding finger foods may not be developmentally appropriate for a 6-month-old infant. Choice B is incorrect as most infants are able to sit up with support around 6 months of age without the need for specific teaching strategies. Choice D is also incorrect as while appetite changes can occur, explaining a specific increase in appetite over the next 6 months is not a primary focus when discussing developmental changes with parents of a 6-month-old.
What suggestion should the nurse provide to prevent diaper rash in a 4-month-old infant as requested by the mother?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a barrier cream like zinc oxide forms a protective layer on the skin, creating a barrier against irritants and moisture, thus helping to prevent diaper rash. Unlike other options, barrier creams do not need to be completely removed at each diaper change, allowing the skin to remain protected between changes.
The nurse is planning for a 5-month-old with gastroesophageal reflux disease whose weight has decreased by 3 ounces since the last clinic visit one month ago. To increase caloric intake and decrease vomiting, what instructions should the nurse provide this mother?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Thickening formula with cereal is a recommended intervention for infants with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) to help reduce vomiting and increase caloric intake. This modification can help the infant keep the food down better, reducing reflux symptoms while providing adequate nutrition. Giving small amounts of baby food with each feeding (Choice A) is not recommended for a 5-month-old with GERD as it may exacerbate symptoms. Diluting the child's formula with equal parts of water (Choice C) can lead to inadequate nutrition and is not advisable. Offering 10% dextrose in water between most feedings (Choice D) is not appropriate for managing GERD in infants and does not address the underlying issue of reflux.
A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.
Which drink choice on a hot day indicates that a teenager with sickle cell anemia understands dietary considerations related to the disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lemonade is the correct choice for a teenager with sickle cell anemia as it provides hydration without caffeine, which is important for individuals with this condition. Caffeine can lead to dehydration, vasoconstriction, and potentially worsen symptoms in sickle cell anemia patients. Milkshake (choice A) may contain dairy, which can be high in fat and may not be the best choice for someone with sickle cell anemia. Iced tea (choice B) and diet cola (choice C) both contain caffeine, which should be avoided by individuals with sickle cell anemia due to its dehydrating effects.
The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who has been diagnosed with measles. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent the spread of infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Measles is an airborne infection, so placing the child in airborne isolation is crucial to prevent the spread of the virus to others. Airborne isolation precautions help contain infectious respiratory droplets and reduce the risk of transmission to healthcare workers, other patients, and visitors. Administering antipyretics, encouraging fluid intake, and teaching parents about hand hygiene are important aspects of care but do not directly address the prevention of the spread of measles, which requires airborne precautions.
When reviewing the dietary guidelines for a child with nephrotic syndrome, which diet should the practical nurse reinforce with the parents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct diet that the practical nurse should reinforce with the parents of a child with nephrotic syndrome is a low-sodium diet. This diet is crucial for managing fluid retention and reducing the risk of edema, which are common concerns in children with nephrotic syndrome.
When assessing a child with suspected meningitis, which finding is a characteristic sign of meningitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Photophobia, which is sensitivity to light, is a characteristic sign of meningitis in children. It commonly presents along with symptoms such as headache and neck stiffness. This symptom is important to recognize early for prompt diagnosis and treatment of meningitis.
The mother of a 9-month-old girl provides the practical nurse with information about her daughter's diet. Which statement by the mother may indicate why the infant has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Infants should not be given cow's milk before 1 year of age as it can interfere with iron absorption and lead to anemia. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding sugary water is actually a good practice. Choice C is unrelated to iron-deficiency anemia. Choice D, not liking peaches or pears, is also not directly related to iron-deficiency anemia.
A 12-year-old male is brought to the clinic after falling during a skateboarding trick. The child's vital signs are heart rate 135 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 90/60. Which finding should the practical nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the 12-year-old male with a heart rate of 135 beats/minute, respirations of 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 90/60 after falling during a skateboarding trick exhibits signs of shock. Weak and rapid peripheral pulses are concerning as they may indicate decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which are signs of shock. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention to prevent potential complications. The other choices are less urgent. Complaints of back soreness (choice A) could be related to musculoskeletal injury. Capillary refill less than 2 seconds (choice B) is within the normal range, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A blood pressure of 94/68 (choice C) is slightly higher than the initial reading and may be compensatory in response to the fall and shock state.
A 10-year-old child is being discharged after being admitted for status asthmaticus. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a peak flow meter daily is crucial as it helps monitor asthma control by measuring how well the child's lungs are functioning. This monitoring can indicate when intervention is needed before symptoms worsen or become severe, allowing for timely management of asthma exacerbations.
What information should be reinforced with the mother of a child with ringworm (Tinea)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Ringworm, a fungal infection, is highly contagious and can be spread by direct contact with infected individuals or animals and indirectly through contaminated objects. It is important for the mother to understand the modes of transmission to prevent the spread of the infection to others and to take necessary precautions to ensure proper treatment and containment of the condition. Choices A and D are incorrect because ringworm is indeed contagious, and it may not always subside spontaneously. Choice B is misleading as tinea infections are not solely indicative of poor hygiene; they can affect anyone, regardless of personal cleanliness.
The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.
A 14-year-old client with type 1 diabetes is participating in a school sports event. The nurse provides education to the client about managing blood glucose levels during physical activity. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Skipping the insulin dose when blood sugar is high before exercise can be harmful. It is essential to manage blood glucose levels carefully during physical activity, which may require adjustments to insulin doses but skipping doses is not recommended. Checking blood sugar before and after exercise (Choice A) helps in monitoring and managing blood glucose levels. Eating a snack before playing (Choice B) can help maintain blood sugar levels during physical activity. Carrying a fast-acting carbohydrate (Choice D) is important in case of low blood sugar during sports to quickly raise glucose levels. Therefore, the client needs further teaching on the importance of not skipping insulin doses even if blood sugar is high before exercise.
When developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy, what should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first step in developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy is to identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys. Understanding the child's motivations is crucial in creating an effective behavior modification plan tailored to his interests and preferences, which can help in positively reinforcing desired behaviors.
The infant scheduled for reduction of intussusception passes a soft-formed brown stool the day before the procedure. What intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial when an infant scheduled for intussusception reduction passes a soft-formed brown stool as it may indicate spontaneous reduction of the intussusception. The healthcare provider needs to be informed to assess if the procedure is still necessary or if further evaluation is required. Instructing the parents that the infant needs to be NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the immediate action required in this situation. Obtaining a stool specimen for laboratory analysis is not necessary as the soft-formed brown stool is likely a result of the intussusception spontaneously reducing. Asking about recent changes in the infant's diet is not the most appropriate action when brown stool is passed before the procedure for intussusception reduction.
Which assessment finding should the healthcare provider identify as most concerning in a child with acute glomerulonephritis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a child with acute glomerulonephritis, hypertension is the most concerning assessment finding as it can indicate worsening renal function. Hypertension is a common complication of glomerulonephritis and can lead to further kidney damage if not managed promptly. Monitoring and controlling blood pressure is crucial in these cases to prevent complications and preserve renal function. Gross hematuria, proteinuria, and periorbital edema are also common findings in acute glomerulonephritis but hypertension poses a higher risk for renal damage if left uncontrolled.
A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of ear pain and fever. The practical nurse suspects otitis media. Which symptom supports this suspicion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tugging at the ear is a common symptom in children with otitis media. It often indicates discomfort or pain in the ear, suggesting inflammation or infection in the middle ear. This behavior is frequently observed in young children who are unable to express their discomfort verbally, making it a significant clinical indicator for otitis media in this age group. Clear nasal discharge (Choice A) is more indicative of a cold or allergies, while a dry, hacking cough (Choice B) is not typically associated with otitis media. Although a sore throat (Choice D) can sometimes accompany ear infections, tugging at the ear is a more specific and reliable symptom in this case.
What advice should be provided by the practical nurse to the mother of a school-age child with acute diarrhea and mild dehydration who is occasionally vomiting despite being given an oral rehydration solution (ORS)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The practical nurse should advise the mother to continue providing the oral rehydration solution (ORS) frequently in small amounts. It is essential to continue ORS administration to prevent dehydration, even if the child is occasionally vomiting. Small, frequent amounts of ORS help maintain hydration levels in children with acute diarrhea and mild dehydration.
Prior to discharge, the parents of a child with cystic fibrosis are demonstrating chest physiotherapy (CPT) that they will perform for their child at home. Which action requires intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Placing the child in a supine position to begin percussion is incorrect for chest physiotherapy (CPT). This position is not effective for CPT as it may lead to improper drainage of secretions. The child should be in an appropriate sitting or slightly reclined position to ensure proper lung drainage during CPT. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions for chest physiotherapy. Performing CPT when the child awakens helps in clearing secretions, using a cupped hand during percussion is a proper technique to promote secretion movement, and administering a bronchodilator before CPT can help open up the airways for better clearance.
A child with Graves' disease who is taking propranolol (Inderal) is seen in the clinic. The nurse should monitor the child for which therapeutic response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a child with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol (Inderal), the nurse should monitor for a decreased heart rate as a therapeutic response. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts to slow down the heart rate, which is beneficial in managing the symptoms of Graves' disease, such as tachycardia and other cardiovascular manifestations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because propranolol is not typically associated with increased weight gain, reduced headaches, or diminished fatigue as its primary therapeutic effect in this context.
What information should the nurse provide the parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) who are concerned about having more children?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family. Since it is X-linked, sons inherit the mutation from their mothers who are carriers of the abnormal gene. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that any future sons they have would have a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and having DMD, while daughters would have a 50% chance of being carriers like the mother.
How should the caregiver instruct on caring for a 4-month-old with seborrheic dermatitis (cradle cap) when shampooing the child's hair?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When dealing with seborrheic dermatitis (cradle cap) in infants, it is essential to use a soft brush and gently scrub the affected area to help remove the scales. This process can aid in managing the condition and preventing further build-up. It is important to be gentle to avoid irritating the baby's delicate skin. Choice B is incorrect as gentle scrubbing with a soft brush can help in the removal of scales. Choice C is incorrect because regular but gentle washing is recommended to manage cradle cap. Choice D is incorrect as using specialized shampoos designed for cradle cap is usually recommended over soap and water.
The caregiver is teaching a group of parents about injury prevention for toddlers. Which statement by a parent indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Teaching children how to swim is valuable, but parental supervision around water is essential to prevent drowning. It's crucial to emphasize constant supervision when young children are near water, regardless of their swimming abilities. The other choices (A, C, and D) demonstrate appropriate safety measures for injury prevention in toddlers, such as securing cleaning supplies, ensuring helmet use during tricycle rides, and using a car seat for every car ride.
A child with pertussis is receiving azithromycin (Zithromax Injection) IV. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the child's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When administering azithromycin IV, monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction, such as facial swelling or urticaria, is crucial. This helps in early detection of potential adverse reactions and ensures prompt intervention to prevent complications associated with the medication. The other options are not directly related to the administration of azithromycin IV in this scenario. Monitoring for fluid overload would be more relevant for fluid administration, changing IV site dressing is important but not the priority in this case, and assessing for abdominal pain and vomiting may be important but not as critical as monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction.
What information should a nurse discuss with the mother of a 2-year-old girl who is drinking sweetened soda from her bottle?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is explaining the association between drinking soda and dental caries. Soda consumption can lead to tooth decay and cavities, so it is crucial to educate the mother about this to prevent dental issues in the child.
The parents of a 2-month-old infant, who is being discharged after treatment for pyloric stenosis, are being educated by the healthcare provider. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Placing babies on their stomach to sleep increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). The safest sleep position for infants is on their back to reduce the risk of SIDS. Teaching parents about safe sleep practices is crucial in preventing potential harm to the infant. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements that promote the well-being of the infant. Feeding the baby in an upright position helps prevent reflux, delaying solid foods until 6 months of age is recommended for proper growth and development, and burping the baby frequently during feedings helps prevent gas buildup and colic.
A 2-year-old is admitted to the hospital with possible encephalitis, and a lumbar puncture is scheduled. Which information should the nurse provide this child concerning the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Describing the side-lying, knees to chest position that must be assumed during the lumbar puncture procedure is essential as it helps the child understand what to expect, promotes cooperation, and reduces anxiety. This position is necessary for the procedure to be performed safely and effectively. Choice B is incorrect because mentioning loud clicking noises may increase the child's anxiety. Choice C is incorrect because there may be restrictions on activity after the procedure, depending on individual cases. Choice D is also incorrect as it provides information about fluid intake restrictions that are not directly related to the procedure itself.
Which statement by a school-aged client going to summer camp indicates the best understanding of the mode of transmission of Lyme disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Wearing long sleeves and pants helps prevent tick bites, which can transmit Lyme disease. Ticks carrying Lyme disease are often found in wooded or grassy areas, so covering exposed skin can reduce the risk of being bitten by an infected tick. Choices A, B, and C do not address the specific mode of transmission of Lyme disease through tick bites, making them incorrect.
A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic because the baby does not sleep through the night. Which finding is most significant in planning care for this family?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Severe skin breakdown in the diaper area is significant as it indicates a potential severe issue that needs immediate attention to prevent further complications. Skin breakdown can lead to infections and discomfort for the infant, making it a priority in planning care for this family. The other findings, such as the mother's living situation, baby's irritability during feedings, or formula changes, are important but do not pose immediate risks to the infant's health compared to severe skin breakdown.
A 7-year-old child with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. The mother asks the practical nurse (PN) how to manage the child's nausea at home. What advice should the PN provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During chemotherapy, children may experience nausea. Providing small, frequent meals can help manage nausea as they are easier to tolerate, reducing the likelihood of vomiting. It is important to offer bland, non-spicy foods to avoid exacerbating nausea. Encouraging large meals less frequently or allowing the child to eat whatever they want may overwhelm the digestive system and worsen nausea. Therefore, the correct advice is to provide small, frequent meals to help the child manage nausea effectively.
A 3-year-old with HIV infection is staying with a foster family who is caring for 3 other foster children in their home. When one of the children acquires pertussis, the foster mother calls the clinic and asks the nurse what she should do. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority action for the nurse is to review the immunization documentation of the child with HIV. This step ensures that the child has received the necessary vaccines to protect against pertussis and other preventable diseases. It is essential to verify the immunization status to provide appropriate care and prevent further transmission of infectious diseases within the foster home. Removing the child from the foster home (Choice A) may not be necessary if the child is adequately protected through immunization. Reporting the exposure to the health department (Choice B) is important but not the first action. Placing the child in reverse isolation (Choice C) is not indicated for pertussis exposure.
The practical nurse is reinforcing education with the parents of a child prescribed iron supplements for iron-deficiency anemia. Which statement by the parents indicates they need further instruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Iron supplements should not be given with milk as calcium can interfere with iron absorption. Instead, it is recommended to give it with a source of vitamin C, such as orange juice, to enhance iron absorption. Giving iron supplements with milk may decrease the absorption of iron and should be avoided. Choice B is the correct method to improve iron absorption. Choice C is correct as iron supplements can cause dark or black stools due to unabsorbed iron. Choice D is also correct as iron supplements should always be stored out of reach of children to prevent accidental ingestion.
Which statement by a school-aged client going to summer camp indicates the best understanding of the mode of transmission of Lyme disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Wearing long sleeves and pants is an effective measure to prevent tick bites, which can transmit Lyme disease. Ticks are commonly found in wooded areas and tall grass, so covering exposed skin helps reduce the risk of tick bites and subsequently lowers the risk of contracting Lyme disease. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. Option A pertains to respiratory protection against dust, Option B focuses on wound care, and Option C relates to water safety, none of which are directly related to preventing Lyme disease transmission.
During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.
During a well-baby check, the nurse hides a block under the baby's blanket, and the baby looks for the block. Which normal growth and development milestone is the baby developing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a baby looks for a hidden object, it demonstrates the development of object permanence. This milestone is significant as it signifies the baby's understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not visible. It is a crucial aspect of cognitive development in infancy. Choice A, separation anxiety, refers to distress when separated from a primary caregiver and is not demonstrated in this scenario. Choice B, associative play, involves interactive play with others and is not relevant to object search. Choice C, object prehension, refers to the ability to grasp and hold objects, which is not specifically demonstrated by looking for a hidden object in this context.
A child who is admitted to the hospital with anemia is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating. The nurse anticipates the child developing which acid-base imbalance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the child is hyperventilating, which leads to excessive loss of carbon dioxide. This loss of carbon dioxide causes respiratory alkalosis due to a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a decrease in pH and bicarbonate levels due to conditions like kidney disease. Respiratory acidosis is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide. Metabolic alkalosis results from a loss of acid or an increase in bicarbonate levels.
When reinforcing information about the use of corticosteroids in treating asthma in children, which statement indicates that the parent understands the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rinsing the mouth after using corticosteroid inhalers is crucial as it helps prevent oral thrush, a common side effect associated with these medications. This practice reduces the risk of developing fungal infections in the mouth and throat, maintaining optimal oral health during asthma treatment.
A child with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging increased fluid intake is crucial in managing vaso-occlusive crises in patients with sickle cell anemia. Dehydration can worsen these crises, so adequate hydration is essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Applying cold packs to painful areas may exacerbate vaso-occlusive crises by causing vasoconstriction. Administering high doses of vitamin C is not directly indicated for vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell anemia. Providing low-calorie meals is not the priority during a vaso-occlusive crisis; maintaining adequate nutrition is important, but hydration takes precedence in this situation.
During a follow-up clinical visit, a mother tells the nurse that her 5-month-old son, who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot, has rapid breathing, often takes a long time to eat, and requires frequent rest periods. The infant is not crying while being held, and his growth is in the expected range. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Auscultating the heart and lungs while the infant is held can provide important diagnostic information in assessing the cardiac and respiratory status of the infant who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot. This intervention can help the nurse identify any abnormal heart or lung sounds, which may indicate complications or issues that need further evaluation or intervention.
What age-appropriate play activity should the practical nurse suggest to the parents of a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The practical nurse should suggest playing peek-a-boo to the parents of a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation. Peek-a-boo is a suitable game for this age group as it helps develop visual tracking skills and the concept of object permanence. By covering and uncovering their face or a toy, the infant learns that things still exist even when they cannot be seen, promoting cognitive development and visual engagement.
The healthcare provider plans to administer 10 mcg/kg of digoxin elixir as a loading dose to a child who weighs 55 pounds. Digoxin is available as an elixir of 50 mcg/ml. How many milliliters of the digoxin elixir should the healthcare provider administer to this child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the dose, first, convert the child's weight to kilograms by dividing 55 pounds by 2.2, which equals approximately 25 kg. Then, multiply the weight by the dose (10 mcg/kg) to get the total dose needed, which is 250 mcg. Next, divide the total dose by the concentration of the elixir (50 mcg/ml) to determine the volume needed, which is 5 ml. Therefore, the correct dose is 5 ml based on the child's weight and the concentration of the elixir.
What instructions should the nurse provide to the parents about the treatment of head lice in a 3-year-old boy who has been confirmed to have head lice?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to the parents is to wash the child's bed linens and clothing in hot soapy water. This is essential to eliminate head lice as they can survive on bedding and clothing. It is also important to wash any other items that the child may have used or come into contact with, such as brushes and combs, to prevent reinfestation. Rewashing the child's hair following an isolation period is not necessary, and taking the child to a hair salon for a shampoo and shorter haircut is not a recommended treatment for head lice.
When developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy, what should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first step in developing a behavior modification program for an aggressive child is to determine what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys. Understanding the child's preferences allows the nurse to personalize the program, making it more engaging and effective. This approach increases the chances of success in modifying the aggressive behavior. Evaluating previous reactions to punishment (Choice B) may be important but comes later in the process. Providing positive feedback (Choice C) is beneficial but should come after tailoring the program. Encouraging other children to describe the token system (Choice D) is not the initial step; the focus should be on individualizing the program for the specific child first.
A 3-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with severe dehydration. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of 0.9% normal saline. The nurse notes that the child's heart rate is 150 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a pediatric patient with severe dehydration and signs of compromised hemodynamics such as tachycardia (heart rate of 150 bpm) and hypotension (blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg), the priority intervention is to administer IV fluids as prescribed. Immediate fluid resuscitation is essential to restore hydration, improve perfusion, and stabilize the child's vital signs. While it's important to monitor urine output, initiating fluid resuscitation takes precedence in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can cause a delay in critical intervention, and waiting to reassess vital signs in 30 minutes can be detrimental in a child with severe dehydration and compromised hemodynamics.
The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who was brought to the clinic by the parents due to concerns about the infant's feeding. The parents report that the infant has been vomiting after every feeding and has not gained any weight. What should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing hydration status is crucial in an infant who is vomiting frequently, as dehydration can quickly become a serious issue. In this scenario, the infant's inability to retain feeds and lack of weight gain may indicate a potential risk of dehydration, making it essential to prioritize checking the infant's hydration status to prevent complications. Evaluating the feeding technique (Choice A) could be important but is secondary to addressing potential dehydration. Measuring the abdominal circumference (Choice C) and reviewing the growth chart (Choice D) are not the priority in this situation where dehydration is a primary concern.
A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic because the baby does not sleep through the night. Which finding is most significant in planning care for this family?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Severe skin breakdown in the diaper area is a significant finding indicating a potential health issue that needs immediate attention. It may be a sign of a skin condition, such as a diaper rash, which can cause discomfort and pain for the infant. Addressing this concern promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the baby's well-being. The other choices may also be important in assessing the overall situation of the family, but in terms of immediate care for the infant, the severe skin breakdown takes priority.
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a vaccine to a 5-year-old child. The child is visibly anxious and asks if the shot will hurt. What is the healthcare provider's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a child expresses fear or anxiety about receiving a vaccination, it is essential for the healthcare provider to provide honest and reassuring information. Choice A acknowledges the potential for some discomfort but also reassures the child that it will be over quickly. This response validates the child's feelings while also preparing them for the procedure. Choices B, C, and D either provide false reassurance, dismiss the child's feelings, or suggest avoidance, which are not appropriate responses in this situation.
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a 6-month-old infant with heart failure. The healthcare provider notes that the infant's heart rate is 90 beats per minute. What should the healthcare provider do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the correct action is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Digoxin should be withheld if the infant's heart rate is below 100 beats per minute. Administering digoxin in this situation can further slow down the heart rate in infants with heart failure, leading to potential adverse effects. Reassessing the heart rate in 30 minutes is not the best immediate action to take, as prompt notification and withholding of the medication are crucial. Administering the medication as prescribed or giving half the dose can exacerbate the situation by potentially further lowering the heart rate.
A 3-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The nurse notes that the child has a fever and is breathing rapidly. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a child with pneumonia who is breathing rapidly, the priority action for the nurse is to start the child on oxygen therapy. This intervention is essential to ensure adequate oxygenation, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress and preventing complications associated with hypoxia. Administering antipyretic medication (Choice A) may help reduce the fever but does not address the immediate need for oxygen therapy. Obtaining a chest X-ray (Choice B) is important for diagnosis but providing oxygen is more urgent. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after initiating oxygen therapy to update on the patient's condition.
A 4-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections is brought to the clinic by the parents who are concerned about the child's hearing. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's priority action should be to inspect the child's ears for drainage. This immediate assessment can provide valuable information about the presence of infection or fluid accumulation, which can directly impact the child's hearing. By identifying any signs of drainage, the nurse can promptly address any current issues affecting the child's ear health and hearing abilities. Performing a hearing test (Choice A) may be necessary but should follow the initial assessment of the ears. Referring the child to an audiologist (Choice C) can be considered later based on the findings. Asking about speech development (Choice D) is important but not the immediate priority compared to assessing for current ear issues.
The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old child who is scheduled for surgery to repair a fractured femur. The child's parent expresses concern about the child being afraid of the surgery. What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acknowledging the child's fear and providing information about what to expect can help alleviate anxiety.
When should a mother introduce solid foods to her infant? The mother of a 4-month-old baby girl asks the nurse when she should introduce solid foods to her infant. The mother states, 'My mother says I should put rice cereal in the baby's bottle now.' The nurse should instruct the mother to introduce solid foods when her child exhibits which behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'B: Opens mouth when food comes her way.' Readiness for solid foods is indicated by the infant showing interest in food and being able to sit up with support. This behavior demonstrates the infant's readiness to start introducing solid foods in their diet. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stopping rooting when hungry, awakening once for nighttime feedings, and giving up a bottle for a cup are not indicators of readiness for solid foods in infants.
A 10-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after falling from a bicycle and hitting their head. The nurse notes that the child is drowsy and has a headache. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a child who has fallen and hit their head, presenting with drowsiness and headache, the priority action for the nurse is to perform a full neurological assessment. This is crucial to evaluate the extent of the head injury and monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which could indicate a more severe traumatic brain injury. Administering pain medication or allowing the child to rest quietly are not appropriate initial actions without first assessing the neurological status. Checking the child's immunization status is important for overall health but is not the priority in this acute situation.
The parents of a 5-year-old child, recently diagnosed with celiac disease, are being educated by the healthcare provider. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Children with celiac disease must strictly adhere to a gluten-free diet. Even small amounts of gluten can cause harm by triggering an immune response that damages the intestines. It is crucial for parents to understand that allowing their child to have small amounts of gluten occasionally is not safe and can lead to complications. Therefore, further teaching is needed to emphasize the importance of complete avoidance of gluten-containing foods for a child with celiac disease. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate understanding of the need to avoid gluten-containing foods and hidden sources of gluten, which are essential in managing celiac disease. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a lax approach to the child's diet, which can be harmful in the case of celiac disease.
The healthcare provider is caring for a 3-year-old child who is hospitalized with dehydration. The child is now receiving IV fluids and has started to produce urine. What is the best indicator that the child's dehydration is improving?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator that the child's hydration status is improving. Adequate urine output signifies that the kidneys are functioning properly and that the body is effectively eliminating waste and excess fluids, indicating improved hydration levels. The other options are not as direct indicators of hydration status. Skin turgor and weight changes can be influenced by various factors, and stable vital signs do not specifically reflect hydration status.
In a 12-year-old child with a history of epilepsy brought to the emergency department after experiencing a 10-minute seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering antiepileptic medication as prescribed is the priority intervention in a child with a history of epilepsy who experienced a prolonged seizure. This action is crucial to stop the seizure and prevent further complications associated with prolonged seizure activity. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but the priority is to stop the seizure. Monitoring vital signs and checking blood glucose levels are important but secondary to administering antiepileptic medication to manage the seizure.
The nurse is preparing to administer an immunization to a 5-year-old child. The parent asks if the vaccine can be given in a different way because the child is afraid of needles. What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering the vaccine as a nasal spray provides an alternative method of delivery that avoids the use of needles, addressing the child's fear while ensuring immunization. Nasal sprays are effective for certain vaccines and can be a suitable option in this scenario. Choice A is not the best response as it only addresses pain management but does not eliminate the use of needles. Choice B is incorrect as there are alternative delivery methods like nasal sprays. Choice D is incorrect as skipping the vaccine would leave the child unprotected and is not a recommended course of action.
A 5-year-old child with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the child's white blood cell count is low. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority intervention for a 5-year-old child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy and having a low white blood cell count is to place the child in protective isolation. This intervention helps reduce the risk of infection, which is crucial in this immunocompromised state. Protective isolation aims to limit the child's exposure to pathogens and promote their safety during a period of increased vulnerability to infections.
What intervention should the nurse implement first for a male toddler brought to the emergency center approximately three hours after swallowing tablets from his grandmother's bottle of digoxin (Lanoxin)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases of digoxin toxicity, IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind) is the antidote and should be administered first to counteract the effects of digoxin poisoning. This intervention is crucial in managing digoxin overdose and should be initiated promptly to improve patient outcomes. Activated charcoal and gastric lavage are not effective in treating digoxin poisoning and may not be beneficial at this stage. While obtaining an electrocardiogram is important to assess cardiac function, administering the antidote should take precedence to address the immediate life-threatening effects of digoxin toxicity.
A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil). The child's mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son's airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly. Albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist that helps open the airways during an asthma attack. By reassuring the mother, the nurse reinforces the correct usage of the medication, which is crucial in managing the child's asthma symptoms effectively. Option A is incorrect because immediate evaluation may not be necessary if the child's symptoms are being managed effectively with albuterol. Option B is incorrect as chronic bronchitis is not typically associated with the overuse of albuterol. Option D is incorrect as albuterol primarily acts as a bronchodilator and does not directly reduce airway inflammation.
A 16-year-old adolescent with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with a respiratory infection. The nurse is teaching the adolescent about the importance of airway clearance techniques. Which statement by the adolescent indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Airway clearance exercises are essential for individuals with cystic fibrosis to prevent mucus buildup in their lungs. It is crucial to perform these exercises regularly, even when feeling well, to maintain lung health and prevent complications. Choice A is correct as doing airway clearance exercises daily is necessary. Choice C is also accurate as airway clearance does indeed help prevent mucus buildup. Choice D is correct as it is important to continue the airway clearance routine even when not sick to maintain lung health. Choice B is incorrect because stating that airway clearance exercises are unnecessary when feeling okay demonstrates a misunderstanding of the importance of consistent airway clearance in cystic fibrosis management.
A 7-year-old child with a history of asthma presents to the clinic with shortness of breath and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child's peak flow reading is in the red zone. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a child with asthma presents with shortness of breath and wheezing, and the peak flow reading is in the red zone, indicating severe airflow limitation, the priority intervention is to administer a bronchodilator. Bronchodilators help dilate the airways quickly, improving airflow and assisting with breathing. Reassessing the peak flow reading is important but not the first action to take in a severe asthma exacerbation. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating immediate treatment with a bronchodilator. Providing oxygen therapy may be needed in some cases, but addressing the airway constriction with a bronchodilator should come first to improve ventilation.
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