HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client admitted to the ICU with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. What is the first intervention the nurse should implement?
- A. Evaluate the client's swallowing ability.
- B. Reorient the client frequently.
- C. Patch one eye to minimize confusion.
- D. Perform range of motion exercises.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's swallowing ability. Osmotic demyelination can cause dysphagia, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing swallowing function is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client frequently (Choice B) is more suitable for confusion related to conditions like delirium. Patching one eye (Choice C) is a technique used for diplopia or double vision, not specifically indicated for osmotic demyelination. Performing range of motion exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for preventing complications of immobility but is not the priority intervention for osmotic demyelination.
2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and peripheral edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Elevate the legs to reduce swelling.
- B. Restrict fluids to reduce fluid overload.
- C. Administer furosemide to reduce fluid overload.
- D. Monitor the client's intake and output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering a diuretic like furosemide is the priority intervention for a client with cirrhosis, ascites, and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis. Elevating the legs may provide some symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Restricting fluids is not appropriate initially as the client needs proper hydration while managing fluid balance. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the first action to address the immediate fluid overload in this client.
3. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 20 breaths per minute
- B. White blood cell count decreases to normal range
- C. Client reports increased energy levels
- D. Cough becomes productive with green sputum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.
4. While providing home care to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is asked how long diuretics must be taken. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. As you urinate more, you will need less medication to control fluid.
- B. You will have to take this medication for about a year.
- C. The medication must be continued so the fluid problem is controlled.
- D. Please talk to your health care provider about medications and treatments.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diuretics must be continued as long as the fluid problem persists to prevent heart failure symptoms.
5. A young male client with an above-knee amputation (AKA) reports that his 'right foot is aching.' What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage discussion of feelings about the loss of his limb.
- B. Administer a prescription for gabapentin.
- C. Teach the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage.
- D. Offer to assist the client to a quieter location to relax.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because gabapentin is prescribed to treat phantom limb pain, which is common in individuals with amputations. Option A is not the most important intervention at this time since the client is reporting physical pain, not emotional distress. Option C is not appropriate because the client is reporting aching in the foot, not the stump. Option D does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain that needs to be managed.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $89
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99