an emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth constipation and an inabili
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz

1. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of dry mouth, constipation, and inability to void are indicative of anticholinergic side effects, which can be caused by medications like propantheline (Pro-Banthine) commonly used to treat incontinence. The first question the nurse should ask is about the client's medications to determine if they are taking anticholinergic drugs. This information is crucial as it can help differentiate between a simple side effect or a potential overdose. Asking about water intake (Choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority in this situation. Questioning about laxatives or enemas (Choice C) and past occurrences (Choice D) are not as pertinent initially as identifying the client's current medication status.

2. A client has just had a central line catheter placed that is specific for hemodialysis. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse after a central line catheter placement for hemodialysis is to place a heparin or heparin/saline dwell after hemodialysis treatment. This helps prevent clot formation in the line and maintain patency for future use. Using the catheter for blood draws is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection. Monitoring central venous pressure is not indicated with this type of catheter. Accessing the line for medications is also not recommended to prevent complications and ensure the line is solely used for hemodialysis purposes.

3. Which of the following is most important for assessing when evaluating the effects of peritoneal dialysis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Daily weight is the most crucial parameter to assess when evaluating the effects of peritoneal dialysis because it directly reflects fluid balance. Peritoneal dialysis involves the removal of excess fluid and waste products from the body. Monitoring daily weight enables the healthcare provider to track changes in fluid status, ensuring that the dialysis treatment is effective. While serum potassium levels, blood pressure, and serum sodium levels are important parameters to monitor in patients undergoing dialysis, they are not as directly indicative of the immediate effects of peritoneal dialysis on fluid balance as daily weight.

4. The patient has a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 82/58 mm Hg, is lethargic, complaining of muscle weakness, and has had gastroenteritis for several days. Based on these findings, which sodium value would the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation of tachycardia, hypotension, lethargy, muscle weakness, and gastroenteritis suggests hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is characterized by a serum sodium level below the normal range of 135-145 mEq/L. A serum sodium level of 126 mEq/L falls significantly below this range, indicating hyponatremia. Choice B (140 mEq/L) and Choice C (145 mEq/L) are within the normal range for serum sodium levels and would not explain the patient's symptoms. Choice D (158 mEq/L) is above the normal range and would indicate hypernatremia, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation.

5. A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension, and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client has indigestion. The nurse connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client presenting with possible myocardial infarction who is receiving oxygen therapy and cardiac monitoring, the next priority action is to establish IV access by starting an IV infusion. This allows for prompt administration of medications and fluids as needed in the management of acute coronary syndromes. Calling the physician (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the immediate next step. Obtaining a portable chest radiograph (Choice C) may help in further assessment but is not as crucial as establishing IV access. Drawing blood for laboratory studies (Choice D) is important for diagnostic purposes but is not as urgent compared to starting an IV infusion in the setting of a potential myocardial infarction.

Similar Questions

Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who underwent cataract extraction today?
A nurse checks the residual volume from a client’s nasogastric tube feeding before administering an intermittent tube feeding and finds 35 mL of gastric contents. What should the nurse do before administering the prescribed 100 mL of formula to the client?
During an interview with a client planning elective surgery, the client asks the nurse, 'What is the advantage of having a preferred provider organization insurance plan?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A female patient will receive doxycycline to treat a sexually transmitted infection (STI). What information will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?
The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and observes that the client's eyeballs are protuberant, causing a wide-eyed appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses