HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. An older adult client with heart failure (HF) and hypertension (HTN) is receiving atenolol, furosemide, and enalapril. Which assessments are essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the medications?
- A. Bowel sounds and daily weight.
- B. Daily weight and blood pressure.
- C. Heart sounds and range of motion.
- D. Monitor for evidence of hypokalemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight and blood pressure is crucial to assess the effectiveness of diuretics (furosemide) and antihypertensives (atenolol, enalapril) in managing heart failure and hypertension. Changes in weight indicate fluid status, while blood pressure readings reflect the control of hypertension. Assessing bowel sounds and range of motion are important but not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of these specific medications in this scenario. Monitoring for hypokalemia is important due to furosemide's potential side effect, but it is not the primary assessment to evaluate medication effectiveness.
2. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.
3. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?
- A. Have him drink several glasses of water
- B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
- C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
- D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.
4. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?
- A. The client will walk 30 minutes three times a week
- B. The client will demonstrate understanding of proper shoe fit
- C. The client will perform foot care daily
- D. The client's blood pressure readings will be less than 160/90 mmHg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Controlling blood pressure is critical in managing peripheral vascular disease, as elevated pressure can exacerbate vascular damage and complications. While foot care, shoe fit, and exercise are important, lowering blood pressure is a primary goal. Proper blood pressure management helps in preventing further damage to the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral vascular disease, making it the most crucial outcome to include in the plan of care for this client.
5. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?
- A. The CAGE is a tool for identifying substance abuse.
- B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
- C. One positive response indicates potential alcohol issues.
- D. All responses must be positive for alcohol dependence.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.
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