HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
- B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
- C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
- D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.
2. The nurse reviews the diagnostic tests prescribed for a client with a positive skin test. Which subjective findings reported by the client support the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
- A. Mucopurulent cough and night sweats
- B. Fatigue and headache
- C. Persistent cough and weight gain
- D. Weight loss and fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A mucopurulent cough and night sweats are hallmark signs of active tuberculosis. These symptoms are key indicators of TB as the combination of a productive cough with night sweats is highly suggestive of the disease. Fatigue and headache (choice B) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in many conditions and are not specific to TB. Persistent cough and weight gain (choice C) are not typical findings in tuberculosis. Weight loss and fever (choice D) can be present in TB, but the specific combination of mucopurulent cough and night sweats is more specific to the diagnosis.
3. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing paranoia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Reassure the client that their fears are unfounded.
- B. Place the client in a private room to reduce stimuli.
- C. Provide the client with a distraction to redirect their attention.
- D. Encourage the client to express their concerns and validate their feelings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging clients with paranoia to express their concerns and validating their feelings is crucial as it helps establish trust and reduce anxiety. This approach also aids in building a therapeutic relationship. Reassuring the client that their fears are unfounded (Choice A) may invalidate their feelings and worsen trust. Placing the client in a private room to reduce stimuli (Choice B) may be helpful in some situations but does not address the underlying issue of paranoia. Providing a distraction (Choice C) may temporarily shift the client's focus but does not address the root cause of the paranoia. Therefore, the priority intervention is to encourage the client to express their concerns and validate their feelings.
4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?
- A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
- B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
- C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
- D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.
5. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Avoid direct sunlight while taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with meals to prevent nausea.
- D. Discontinue the medication if you experience dizziness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with a full glass of water.' It is crucial for the nurse to teach the client to take ciprofloxacin with a full glass of water to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin does not require avoiding direct sunlight. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with meals is not necessary to prevent nausea. Choice D is incorrect as dizziness is not a common reason to discontinue ciprofloxacin.
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