Free HESI Maternity practice for Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet (HESI RN). Answer 61 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking
A 28-year-old client in active labor complains of cramps in her leg. What intervention should be implemented?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During active labor, if a client complains of leg cramps, extending the leg and dorsiflexing the foot can help relieve the muscle cramps by stretching the affected muscles. This intervention promotes circulation and can alleviate discomfort associated with leg cramps.
At 40 weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home and is in active labor. The client feels the need to bear down and push. What information is most important for the nurse to obtain first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The color and consistency of the amniotic fluid are crucial to assess as they can provide valuable information about the presence of meconium, which may indicate fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to complications such as meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn. Therefore, assessing the color and consistency of the amniotic fluid is the priority in this situation to ensure timely interventions if needed. Estimated amount of fluid (Choice A) may be important but not as critical as assessing for meconium. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured (Choice B) is less relevant compared to assessing for meconium. Knowing the time the membranes ruptured (Choice D) is important but does not take precedence over assessing for fetal distress indicated by meconium presence.
In caring for a 4-year-old boy recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), which characteristic of the disease is most important for the nurse to focus on during the initial teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a key characteristic is the progressive weakness in the lower legs, leading to a waddling, unsteady gait. The nurse should focus on teaching about this aspect as it helps in understanding the disease's progression and managing the symptoms effectively.
A full-term infant is transferred to the nursery from labor and delivery. Which information is most important for the LPN/LVN to receive when planning immediate care for the newborn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a full-term infant is transferred to the nursery, the most crucial information for the LPN/LVN to receive for immediate care planning is the infant's condition at birth and any treatments received. This data helps in determining the initial care needs and monitoring requirements for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical as the infant's condition at birth and treatment received. The length of labor and method of delivery may provide background information but may not be as essential for immediate care planning. The feeding method chosen by the parents and the history of drugs given to the mother during labor are important but do not take precedence over knowing the infant's condition and treatment received.
The parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the gene mutation causing DMD is located on the X chromosome. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so if the X chromosome they inherit from their mother carries the mutated gene, they will develop DMD. Females have two X chromosomes, so they are carriers of the gene but are usually not affected by the disease. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that DMD is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family.
What is the best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is to administer the prescribed IV solution. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering IV fluids helps in managing dehydration, replenishing electrolytes, and providing the necessary hydration for both the mother and the fetus. Giving oral rehydration solution (Choice B) may not be sufficient for severe cases of hyperemesis gravidarum where IV fluids are required. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice C) may not be effective as the woman may not be able to tolerate oral intake. Offering ginger tea (Choice D) is not the most appropriate intervention for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it may not provide adequate hydration or electrolyte balance needed in severe cases.
The client delivered hours ago and has a boggy uterus displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A boggy uterus that is displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus may indicate a full bladder, which can impede uterine contraction and lead to hemorrhage. Encouraging the client to void helps relieve pressure on the uterus, promoting better contraction and preventing postpartum hemorrhage.
Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.
A young woman who underwent a liver transplant one year ago tells the clinic nurse that she would like to start a family. How should the nurse intervene?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Post-liver transplant pregnancy is high-risk due to potential complications associated with immunosuppressive therapy and the transplanted organ's health. Providing information about the risks involved allows the client to make an informed decision regarding family planning.
A new mother asks the LPN/LVN, 'How do I know that my daughter is getting enough breast milk?' Which explanation should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Adequate voiding is a sign that the baby is receiving enough milk. Pale straw-colored urine 6 to 10 times a day indicates proper hydration and nutrition. This is a reliable indicator of adequate breast milk intake for the infant. Choice A is incorrect because weight gain alone may not always indicate sufficient milk intake. Choice C is incorrect because supplementing with bottle milk can interfere with establishing breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests switching to bottle feeding, which is not necessary if the baby is latching and voiding well.
A client who is 32 weeks' gestation comes to the women's health clinic and reports nausea and vomiting. On examination, the nurse notes that the client has an elevated blood pressure. Which action should the nurse implement next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inspecting the client's face for edema is crucial to assess for preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy. Edema, particularly facial edema, can be a significant indicator of preeclampsia, prompting the need for further evaluation and management to ensure the well-being of both the client and the unborn child.
A 38-week primigravida who works at a desk job and sits at a computer for 8 hours each day tells the nurse that her feet have begun to swell. Which instruction would be most effective in preventing pooling of blood in the lower extremities?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, it is common for women to experience swelling due to decreased circulation. Encouraging the patient to move about every hour helps prevent blood pooling in the lower extremities by promoting circulation. This simple activity can help alleviate swelling and discomfort associated with prolonged sitting.
A client at 28 weeks gestation calls the antepartum clinic and reports experiencing a small amount of bright red vaginal bleeding without uterine contractions or abdominal pain. What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bright red vaginal bleeding without pain could indicate placental issues such as previa. An ultrasound is necessary to evaluate the cause. It is important to rule out potential serious conditions like placental previa, which can lead to further complications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, prompt evaluation through an ultrasound at the clinic is essential for appropriate management and ensuring the well-being of the client and her baby.
A 6-year-old child is diagnosed with rheumatic fever and demonstrates associated chorea (sudden aimless movements of the arms and legs). Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chorea, or sudden aimless movements associated with rheumatic fever, is temporary in nature and will eventually disappear on its own. It is important for the nurse to reassure the parents that these movements are part of the condition and typically resolve over time without the need for permanent lifestyle changes or strict discipline. Providing accurate information and reassurance to the parents can help alleviate concerns and promote understanding of the condition's course. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because muscle tension, permanent lifestyle changes, and consistent discipline are not directly related to the resolution of chorea in rheumatic fever.
A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in the client's nursing care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the case of eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep an airway at the bedside. Eclampsia is associated with a high risk of convulsions, and having an airway readily available is crucial for prompt intervention in the event of seizures. Assessing temperature, allowing family visitation, and monitoring vital signs are important aspects of care but ensuring airway patency takes precedence in this situation to manage potential complications and ensure the client's safety.
A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.
The healthcare provider is assessing a 38-week gestation newborn infant immediately following a vaginal birth. Which assessment finding best indicates that the infant is transitioning well to extrauterine life?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A vigorous cry upon stimulation indicates that the newborn has good respiratory effort and is transitioning well to life outside the womb. It shows that the infant's airways are clear, and they are able to establish effective breathing, a crucial aspect of transitioning successfully to extrauterine life. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of successful transition to extrauterine life. The Babinski reflex and flexion of extremities are normal neonatal reflexes and do not specifically indicate successful transition. A heart rate of 220 beats/min is abnormally high for a newborn and could indicate distress rather than a smooth transition.
A neonate with congenital adrenal hypoplasia (CAH) presents with ambiguous genitalia. What is the primary nursing consideration when supporting the parents of a child with this anomaly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Supporting the parents in their decision regarding the sex assignment of their child is crucial as it respects the parental role in making this important decision and helps provide emotional support during a challenging time. The primary focus should be on helping the parents navigate the complexities and implications of determining the sex assignment for their child with ambiguous genitalia.
During an examination for possible cryptorchidism in an infant, what technique should be used?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When examining an infant for cryptorchidism, it is important to position the infant in a warm room to prevent muscle contraction, which could cause the testes to retract. Placing the infant in a side-lying position may not be necessary for this specific examination. Holding the penis or retracting the foreskin is not relevant to the assessment for cryptorchidism. Cleansing the penis with an antiseptic pad is not indicated for this examination.
The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.
What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct following the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is at 40-weeks gestation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Following the administration of epidural anesthesia, the most crucial assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct is monitoring maternal blood pressure. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension as a common side effect, which can have significant implications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, close monitoring of maternal blood pressure is essential to detect and manage any hypotensive episodes promptly. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments during labor and delivery, but in this specific scenario of post-epidural anesthesia, monitoring maternal blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential risk of hypotension.
When preparing a class on newborn care for expectant parents, what content should be taught concerning the newborn infant born at term gestation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance that acts as a protective barrier on the skin of newborns, particularly present in skin folds. It helps to prevent dehydration and protect the delicate skin of the newborn from the amniotic fluid in utero. Educating expectant parents about the presence and function of vernix caseosa can help them understand the importance of its preservation during the immediate postnatal period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the protective function of vernix caseosa in newborns. Milia are small, white bumps on the skin due to blocked oil glands, meconium is the first stool of a newborn and is typically dark green or black in color, and pseudostrabismus refers to false appearance of misalignment of the eyes, which usually resolves on its own without intervention.
At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home, in active labor, and feeling the urge to push. What information should the nurse prioritize obtaining?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the color and consistency of amniotic fluid is crucial as it can indicate the presence of meconium, which suggests potential fetal distress. This information guides the need for further assessments and interventions to ensure the well-being of the mother and fetus. Estimating the amount of fluid is not as critical as determining the color and consistency to identify fetal distress. While noting any odor is important, it is secondary to assessing the fluid itself. Knowing the time of membrane rupture is helpful but not as crucial as evaluating the characteristics of the amniotic fluid.
When assessing a child with HIV, which system should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a child with HIV, it is essential to prioritize assessing the respiratory system first. Children with HIV are more susceptible to respiratory infections and complications, such as pneumonia, due to their weakened immune system. Identifying any respiratory issues early on can help in prompt intervention and management, thus improving outcomes for the child.
A mother who is breastfeeding her baby receives instructions from the nurse. Which instruction is most effective to prevent nipple soreness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most effective instruction to prevent nipple soreness when breastfeeding is to correctly place the infant on the breast. Proper latch-on techniques ensure that the baby is properly positioned, reducing the risk of nipple soreness. When the baby is positioned correctly, they can nurse effectively without causing discomfort to the mother.
The caregiver observes a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate (iron drops), followed by 2 ounces of orange juice. What should the caregiver do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The high vitamin C content in orange juice aids in the absorption of iron. Providing positive feedback to the mother for administering the iron drops with orange juice is appropriate as it enhances iron absorption, benefiting the infant. Encouraging and acknowledging correct medication administration can help reinforce good practices and build confidence in the caregiver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the beneficial practice of administering iron drops with orange juice, which enhances iron absorption. Changing the method of administration based on incorrect assumptions or instructing to withhold feeding after giving iron drops is unnecessary and not evidence-based.
A pregnant woman in the first trimester of pregnancy has hemoglobin of 8.6 g/dl and a hematocrit of 25.1%. What food should the nurse encourage this client to include in her diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During pregnancy, it is common for women to experience a drop in hemoglobin levels, leading to anemia. Chicken is a good dietary source of iron, which is essential for increasing hemoglobin levels. Iron from animal sources, such as chicken, is more readily absorbed by the body compared to plant-based sources. Therefore, encouraging the client to include chicken in her diet can help improve her hemoglobin levels and combat anemia.
The healthcare provider prescribes magnesium sulfate 6 grams intravenously (IV) to be infused over 20 minutes for a client with preterm labor. The IV bag contains magnesium sulfate 20 grams in dextrose 5% in water 500 mL. How many mL/hour should the nurse set the infusion pump?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the infusion rate, first, determine the total volume to be infused (6 grams of magnesium sulfate) over a specific time frame (20 minutes). Then, calculate the concentration of magnesium sulfate in the IV bag to determine the mL/hour rate. The IV bag contains 20 grams of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of solution, which means there are 4 grams of magnesium sulfate per 100 mL. Since 6 grams are required, the nurse should set the pump to deliver 150 mL/hour to infuse the prescribed dose over 20 minutes. Choice B, 250 mL/hour, is incorrect because it miscalculates the amount of magnesium sulfate infused per hour. Choice C, 50 mL/hour, is incorrect as it is too slow to deliver the required dose in the specified time frame. Choice D, 275 mL/hour, is incorrect as it overestimates the infusion rate and would deliver the dose too quickly.
A primipara patient asks what is the best pet to have at home to share time with. Which pet is not recommended?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Birds are not recommended as pets for a primipara patient due to potential health risks associated with bird droppings, feathers, and dander. These factors may pose a risk to the newborn's health and the mother's well-being. Additionally, some birds can be loud, which may disrupt the baby's sleep patterns. Therefore, it is advisable for primipara patients to consider pets like dogs, cats, or fish as they generally have lower associated risks in a household with a newborn. Dogs, cats, and fish are relatively safer options compared to birds for primipara patients due to their lower risk of transmitting infections, allergens, or causing disturbances that could affect the newborn or the mother.
After two miscarriages, a client is instructed to increase her daily intake of foods that include folic acid. The client does not like green leafy vegetables and states she is allergic to soy. Which food should the nurse suggest that the client eat to obtain folic acid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Collard greens are a good source of folic acid, which is important for preventing neural tube defects, especially in clients with a history of miscarriages. Since the client does not like green leafy vegetables, collard greens could be suggested as an alternative source of folic acid. Yogurt and whole milk do not contain significant amounts of folic acid, and while strawberries are a healthy choice, they are not a high source of folic acid compared to collard greens.
A client who is receiving oxytocin to augment early labor begins to experience tachysystolic tetanic contractions with variable fetal heart decelerations. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client experiences tachysystolic tetanic contractions with variable fetal heart decelerations, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, the priority action is to turn off the oxytocin infusion. This step aims to reduce uterine activity, which can compromise fetal oxygenation and lead to adverse outcomes.
After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.
During a woman's first prenatal visit, the nurse reviews her health care record, noting a history of chickenpox as a child and syphilis as a teenager. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Obtaining blood and urine for prenatal screens is crucial in identifying any potential infections or conditions that may require monitoring throughout the pregnancy. Screening for infections such as syphilis is essential to ensure appropriate management and prevent adverse outcomes. This action helps in early detection and timely intervention, promoting the health and well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus. The other options, while important during prenatal care, are not as critical as obtaining prenatal screens to assess for any existing infections that could impact the pregnancy.
In developing a teaching plan for expectant parents, the nurse plans to include information about when the parents can expect the infant's fontanels to close. The LPN/LVN bases the explanation on knowledge that for the normal newborn, the
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The anterior fontanel typically closes between 12 to 18 months, while the posterior fontanel usually closes by the end of the second month. It is important for parents to know these timeframes as it helps in monitoring the normal growth and development of their newborn. Delayed closure of fontanels may indicate potential health issues, and early closure may also warrant further evaluation by healthcare providers.
What action should the nurse take if an infant, who was born yesterday weighing 7.5 lbs (3,402 grams), weighs 7 lbs (3,175 grams) today?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform and assure the mother that this weight loss is normal. Newborns can lose up to 10% of their birth weight in the first few days after birth, which is attributed to fluid loss and adjustment to life outside the womb. This weight loss is typically regained within the first two weeks of life. It is crucial for the nurse to educate and provide reassurance to the mother about this common occurrence in newborns.
Which physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A pulse rate of 56 bpm is a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Bradycardia (pulse rate 50-70 bpm) can be a normal postpartum occurrence due to increased stroke volume and decreased cardiac output after delivery. Unilateral lower leg pain and saturating two perineal pads per hour are not normal findings and require further assessment. A soft, spongy fundus could indicate uterine atony, which is abnormal postpartum.
At 39-weeks gestation, a multigravida is having a nonstress test (NST), the fetal heart rate (FHR) has remained non-reactive during 30 minutes of evaluation. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases where the fetal heart rate remains non-reactive during an NST, using an acoustic stimulator on the abdomen can help stimulate fetal movement and promote heart rate reactivity. This intervention aims to assess the fetus's well-being and response to external stimuli, which can provide valuable information about fetal health status.
A child with ADHD needs help with homework. What should the nurse encourage the parents to do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging parents to help the child with homework is the most appropriate course of action. By assisting the child, parents can provide necessary support and guidance without taking over the task entirely. This approach fosters independence and helps the child develop academic skills. Option B, doing the homework for the child, is counterproductive as it does not empower the child to learn and grow independently. Option C, setting a regular homework schedule, is important but does not address the immediate need for assistance. Option D, providing a quiet environment for homework, is helpful but does not directly involve parents in supporting the child's academic progress.
A one-day-old neonate develops a cephalohematoma. The nurse should closely assess this neonate for which common complication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum. As the blood breaks down, there is an increased risk of jaundice due to the release of bilirubin from the breakdown of red blood cells. Jaundice is a common complication associated with cephalohematoma in neonates. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the neonate for signs of jaundice and manage it accordingly.
A client who gave birth to a healthy 8-pound infant 3 hours ago is admitted to the postpartum unit. Which nursing plan is best in assisting this mother to bond with her newborn infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Meeting the mother's physical needs and demonstrating warmth toward the infant is essential in creating a supportive environment that fosters bonding between the mother and the newborn. By ensuring the mother's comfort and well-being, the nurse can help promote a positive interaction between the mother and her infant, leading to a stronger emotional connection and bonding.
In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.
The client at 10 weeks' gestation is palpated with the fundus at 3 fingerbreadths above the pubic symphysis. The client reports nausea, vomiting, and scant dark brown vaginal discharge. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a pregnant client with a fundal height greater than expected at 10 weeks and experiencing scant dark brown vaginal discharge, there is a concern for a molar pregnancy. Assessing human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is crucial in this situation to confirm or rule out this condition.
A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.
When can a woman who thinks she may be pregnant use a home pregnancy test to diagnose pregnancy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Home pregnancy tests detect hCG, a hormone produced during pregnancy, and are most accurate after the first missed period when hCG levels are higher. Testing too early may result in a false negative. Waiting until after the first missed period increases the reliability of the test results. Choice B is incorrect as waiting until after the second missed period is unnecessary and may delay seeking appropriate healthcare. Choice C is incorrect as home pregnancy tests are generally reliable when used correctly. Choice D is incorrect because ovulation occurs before the period, and testing immediately after ovulation may not provide accurate results.
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.' Phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease by promoting blood clotting. Newborns are born with low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting, hence the administration to prevent hemorrhagic disorders. Choice B is incorrect because phytonadione is not given to help an immature liver but to supply vitamin K. Choice C is incorrect as phytonadione is not administered to improve dietary intake but to provide essential vitamin K. Choice D is incorrect as phytonadione does not stimulate the immune system but helps with blood clotting.
When performing the daily head-to-toe assessment of a 1-day-old newborn, the nurse observes a yellow tint to the skin on the forehead, sternum, and abdomen. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The presence of a yellow tint on the skin of a newborn suggests jaundice. The initial step in managing jaundice in a newborn is to measure bilirubin levels, typically done using transcutaneous bilirubinometry. This measurement helps determine the severity of jaundice and guides appropriate treatment interventions. Evaluating cord blood Coombs test results or reviewing maternal medical records for blood type and Rh factor are not the immediate actions indicated when jaundice is suspected. Phototherapy may be considered after confirming elevated bilirubin levels and assessing the need for treatment.
A client addicted to heroin and newly pregnant asks a nurse about ensuring her baby's health while on methadone. What should the nurse advise?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Initiating prenatal care promptly is essential for monitoring the well-being of both the mother and the fetus, particularly in high-risk pregnancies involving substance use. Early prenatal care allows for timely interventions, education, and support to promote a healthier pregnancy and birth outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because while group therapy may be beneficial, initiating prenatal care is more crucial at this stage. Choice B is incorrect as abrupt discontinuation of methadone can be harmful and should be managed under medical supervision. Choice D is incorrect as genetic testing is not the immediate priority in this scenario.
After breastfeeding for 10 minutes at each breast, a new mother calls the nurse to the postpartum room to help change the newborn's diaper. As the mother begins the diaper change, the newborn spits up the breast milk. What action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a newborn spits up breast milk following feeding, the priority action for the nurse is to sit the newborn upright and burp by rubbing or patting the upper back. This position helps release trapped air and reduces the likelihood of further spit-up or aspiration. It is essential to address this first to prevent potential complications and ensure the newborn's comfort and safety.
A 36-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid and tender to touch. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 90 beats/minute, and the maternal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside. The clinical presentation of severe abdominal pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, rigid and tender abdomen, along with fetal bradycardia (FHR 90 bpm) and maternal tachycardia (120 bpm) indicates an urgent need for medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for immediate assessment and decision-making to address the critical condition and ensure timely and appropriate management for both the mother and fetus.
After administering the varicella vaccine to a 5-year-old child, which instruction should the nurse provide the child's parent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After receiving the varicella vaccine, applying a cool pack to the injection site can help reduce discomfort. This intervention is a simple and effective way to manage local reactions at the site of the vaccination, providing comfort to the child and potentially reducing swelling or pain. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because chewable children's aspirin is not typically recommended after vaccination, keeping the child home is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider, and monitoring fever alone is not the primary instruction post-varicella vaccination.
A pregnant client receives Rho(D) immune globulin after an amniocentesis. The day following, she reports a temperature of 99.8°F (37.67°C). Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A mild increase in temperature post-amniocentesis is common, and encouraging the client to increase oral fluid intake is the appropriate action. Increasing fluid intake can help reduce mild fever, promote recovery, and prevent dehydration. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of staying hydrated to support her overall well-being during this time.
The client is admitted in active labor with a cervix that is 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part at 0 station. An hour later, the client expresses the need to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should prioritize determining cervical dilation as it helps in assessing the progress of labor and ensures it is safe for the client to move. Changes in cervical dilation may indicate the advancement of labor, warranting appropriate interventions or restrictions on movement to prevent complications. While checking the client's bladder may be important to ensure it's not distended, determining cervical dilation takes precedence in this scenario. Checking the pH of the vaginal fluid is not relevant in this situation, and reviewing the fetal heart rate pattern, although important, is not the first action to take when the client expresses the need to go to the bathroom.
The healthcare provider prescribes Amoxicillin 500mg PO every 8hrs for a child who weighs 22 pounds. The available suspension is labeled Amoxicillin Suspension 250mg/5ml. The recommended maximum dose is 50mg/kg/24hr. How many mL should the nurse administer in a single dose based on the child's weight?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the dose for the child weighing 22 pounds, first convert the weight to kg: 22 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 10 kg. The maximum dose based on weight would be 10 kg x 50 mg/kg/24hr = 500 mg/24hr. Since the medication is prescribed every 8 hours, the dose for each administration would be 500 mg ÷ 3 doses = 166.67 mg. As the available suspension is 250mg/5ml, the nurse should administer 166.67 mg ÷ 250 mg/mL = 0.67 mL per dose. However, since it's not practical to administer a fraction of a milliliter, the nurse should round up to the nearest appropriate dose, which is 10mL.
The healthcare provider is assessing a 2-hour-old infant born by cesarean delivery at 39-weeks gestation. Which assessment finding should receive the highest priority when planning the infant's care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A high respiratory rate in a newborn is concerning as it may indicate respiratory distress, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring and addressing respiratory issues take precedence over other parameters in the initial assessment of a newborn. The blood pressure, heart murmur, and blood glucose levels are important but not as urgent as addressing potential respiratory distress in a newborn.
A 10-year-old is admitted to the orthopedic unit with a diagnosis of slipped femoral capital epiphysis (SFCE). What focus should the nurse include in this child's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the case of slipped femoral capital epiphysis, surgical intervention is often required. Post-surgery care is crucial to prevent complications such as infection and ensure proper healing. This care includes monitoring and managing pin and incision sites for signs of infection, promoting wound healing, and preventing postoperative complications. The focus on pin and incision care is essential for the child's recovery and overall well-being.
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer methylergonovine maleate (Methergine) to a postpartum client. Based on what assessment finding should the healthcare provider withhold the drug?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A blood pressure of 149/90 is an indication to withhold Methergine due to its potential to further increase blood pressure. Methergine is a medication that can cause vasoconstriction, leading to elevated blood pressure. In this case, administering Methergine could exacerbate the elevated blood pressure, posing a risk to the patient. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication in the presence of hypertension to prevent adverse effects. The other options are not directly related to the administration of Methergine. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min is within the normal range. A large amount of lochia rubra may indicate normal postpartum bleeding. A positive Homan's sign is associated with deep vein thrombosis, which is not a contraindication for administering Methergine.
A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client's nursing care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep airway equipment at the bedside to manage potential convulsions effectively. This proactive measure is essential to ensure rapid response and intervention in case of convulsions, which can occur in clients with eclampsia.
After each feeding, a 3-day-old newborn is spitting up large amounts of Enfamil® Newborn Formula, a nonfat cow's milk formula. The pediatric healthcare provider changes the neonate's formula to Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula, a soy protein isolate-based infant formula. What information should the LPN/LVN provide to the mother about the newly prescribed formula?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The LPN/LVN should inform the mother that Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula is a soy-based formula containing sucrose. This formula is suitable for infants with cow's milk protein allergy or intolerance, which may be the reason for the newborn spitting up large amounts of the previous cow's milk formula.
Insulin therapy is initiated for a 12-year-old child who is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action is most important for the nurse to include in the child's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), monitoring serum glucose levels is crucial to adjust the infusion rate of regular insulin effectively. This helps in controlling blood glucose levels and preventing complications associated with DKA. Close monitoring and adjustments based on glucose levels are essential for the successful management of DKA. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on a different type of insulin and compliance schedule without addressing the immediate needs of managing DKA. Choice C is not the priority action and involves educating parents on a different method of insulin administration. Choice D is also not the most important action as it suggests consulting with the healthcare provider about a different type of insulin rather than focusing on immediate glucose monitoring for insulin adjustment in DKA management.
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the charge nurse that a client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is reporting a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, heart rate is 74 beats/min, and temperature is 98.6°F (37°C). What action should the charge nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A severe headache post-delivery could indicate a serious condition such as preeclampsia or a spinal headache, which requires immediate medical attention. Notifying the healthcare provider of the assessment findings allows for prompt evaluation and appropriate management of the client's condition.
Using Nägele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery for a pregnant client who reports that the first day of her last menstrual period was August 2, 2006?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nägele's rule is used to estimate the date of delivery. It involves adding 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (August 2), which gives August 9. Then, subtracting 3 months from August 9, we arrive at May 9 of the following year as the estimated date of delivery. This makes choice B, 'May 9, 2007,' the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct calculation based on Nägele's rule.
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