HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI
1. Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?
- A. Neuralgia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Use of nitroglycerin
- D. Use of multivitamins
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide and is contraindicated with the concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Using nitroglycerin together with Viagra can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse, making it unsafe to combine both medications.
2. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?
- A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
- B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
- C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
- D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.
3. A client is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse instructs the client to notify the health care provider (HCP) if which of the following occurs?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Tremors
- C. Cold intolerance
- D. Excessively dry skin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tremors are a sign of excessive doses of levothyroxine, indicating hyperthyroidism. It is important for the client to report tremors to the healthcare provider to prevent complications associated with overdosing on levothyroxine.
4. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Constipation
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.
5. The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Heartburn
- C. Flatulence
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.
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