HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet

HESI RN

1. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

A. Empty the bladder using an indwelling urinary catheter
B. Increase the rate of the IV containing oxytocin (Pitocin)
C. Assess for shock by determining the blood pressure
D. Perform gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Check for tube placement
B. Crush the medications
C. Flush the tube with water
D. Administer the medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action when administering medications to a client with a nasogastric tube is to check for tube placement. This is crucial to ensure that the medications are delivered to the correct location within the gastrointestinal tract. Checking the tube placement helps prevent complications such as medication entering the lungs if the tube is misplaced. Crushing the medications (choice B) or flushing the tube with water (choice C) should only be done after confirming the correct tube placement. Administering the medications (choice D) without verifying the tube placement can lead to serious consequences.

3. What instruction is most important for the nurse to provide a female client who has just been diagnosed with trichomoniasis?

A. Avoid douching
B. Treat sexual partner(s) concurrently
C. Avoid using moist washcloths when bathing
D. Postpone becoming pregnant until the infection is treated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a female client diagnosed with trichomoniasis is to treat sexual partner(s) concurrently. This is crucial to prevent reinfection and the spread of the infection. Choice A, avoiding douching, is generally recommended for vaginal health but is not the most critical instruction in this case. Choice C, avoiding moist washcloths when bathing, is not directly related to the transmission or treatment of trichomoniasis. Choice D, postponing pregnancy until the infection is treated, is important but treating sexual partners concurrently takes precedence to prevent reinfection.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

A. Maintain the client on bed rest
B. Apply warm, moist compresses to the legs
C. Encourage early ambulation
D. Massage the legs daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to encourage early ambulation. Early ambulation helps prevent DVT by promoting circulation, reducing stasis, and preventing blood clot formation. Maintaining the client on bed rest (Choice A) would increase the risk of DVT due to decreased mobility. Applying warm, moist compresses to the legs (Choice B) can be beneficial for other conditions but does not directly prevent DVT. Massaging the legs daily (Choice D) can dislodge a blood clot, leading to serious complications in a client at risk for DVT.

5. A client who is bleeding after a vaginal delivery receives a prescription for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. The medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml. What is the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer to this client?

A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The maximum dosage the nurse should administer is 2 mg. This is calculated based on the prescription of 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. Since the medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml, the nurse should administer 2 ml (0.2 mg/ml x 10 ml) for each dose, not exceeding 5 doses. Therefore, the nurse should limit the client's oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml, to avoid exceeding the maximum dosage of 2 mg.