Free HESI Pharmacology practice for HESI Pharmacology Quizlet (HESI RN). Answer 46 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress trackin
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the medication teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement is 'I will avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia if potassium intake is not regulated. Therefore, avoiding potassium-rich foods is crucial to prevent this complication. Using a salt substitute can also increase potassium levels. Monitoring weight daily is essential in heart failure management, but it is not specific to spironolactone. Increasing fluid intake as prescribed is generally recommended for heart failure management but is not directly related to spironolactone use.
The healthcare provider is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory value would the healthcare provider specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Following chemotherapy for leukemias and lymphomas, hyperuricemia is common due to the massive cell kill. Chemotherapy leads to the rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing large amounts of nucleic acids, which are broken down into uric acid. Monitoring and managing uric acid levels are crucial to prevent complications such as renal damage and gout.
A client is taking ticlopidine hydrochloride (Ticlid). The nurse tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ticlopidine hydrochloride is a platelet aggregation inhibitor. Aspirin or any aspirin-containing product should be avoided as they can precipitate or aggravate bleeding by affecting platelet function and increasing the risk of bleeding complications.
A client taking fexofenadine (Allegra) is scheduled for allergy skin testing and tells the nurse in the healthcare provider's office that a dose was taken this morning. The nurse determines that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fexofenadine, an antihistamine, can cause false-negative readings in allergy skin testing and should be discontinued 3 days prior. Therefore, the client should reschedule the appointment to ensure accurate test results.
A client is receiving morphine sulfate for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine sulfate that can lead to respiratory compromise and requires immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not immediately life-threatening compared to respiratory depression. Monitoring and addressing a low respiratory rate are crucial in preventing further respiratory distress or failure.
Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a client with osteoporosis. The client taking this medication is instructed to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Alendronate (Fosamax) should be taken with a full glass of water after rising in the morning to prevent gastrointestinal side effects and increase absorption. Taking the medication with a full glass of water and in an upright position after waking up helps decrease the risk of esophageal irritation and enhances the drug's effectiveness by ensuring proper absorption in the gastrointestinal tract.
Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching about the use of metoprolol (Lopressor)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because taking metoprolol (Lopressor) at bedtime is not specifically recommended. Metoprolol should be taken with food to enhance absorption. It is crucial for the client not to stop taking the medication abruptly to prevent rebound hypertension or other adverse effects. Additionally, monitoring the pulse before taking metoprolol is important for assessing its effect on heart rate.
A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.
A client is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. The nurse notes redness and swelling at the site, along with a slowed infusion rate. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site, and there are signs of extravasation such as redness and swelling, it is crucial to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Extravasation of antineoplastic medications can cause tissue damage, pain, and necrosis if they escape into surrounding tissues. Prompt action is necessary to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management of the situation. Administering pain medication, applying ice, or elevating the extremity are not appropriate actions in cases of suspected extravasation. These actions do not address the underlying issue of potential tissue damage and necrosis that can occur due to the leakage of antineoplastic medication.
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute, as it could indicate digoxin toxicity. Consuming potassium-rich foods is encouraged due to the potential for furosemide (Lasix) to cause hypokalemia. The medications should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Weighing oneself daily is important to monitor for fluid retention, a crucial aspect in managing heart failure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific teaching point related to digoxin and its potential toxicity.
A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for discharge?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is stabilized with daily insulin injections, it is crucial to rotate the injection sites systematically. This practice helps prevent the development of lipodystrophy, which can affect insulin absorption and lead to inconsistent glucose control. Additionally, rotating sites minimizes discomfort and tissue damage, ensuring optimal insulin delivery and effectiveness.
The client with a gastric ulcer has a prescription for sucralfate (Carafate), 1 g by mouth four times daily. The nurse schedules the medication for which times?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sucralfate is a gastric protectant that forms a protective coating over the ulcer. Administering sucralfate 1 hour before meals and at bedtime is important to create a barrier that protects the ulcer from gastric acid and mechanical irritation. This timing allows sucralfate to effectively coat the ulcer site and provide the desired therapeutic effect, enhancing its efficacy in promoting ulcer healing and symptom relief.
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for a client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action is to inform the client that local discomfort and burning are normal reactions to Mafenide acetate. This medication is used to treat burns by reducing bacteria in avascular tissues. Discontinuing the medication or applying a thinner film than prescribed is not necessary or recommended in this situation.
The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.
Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select one that doesn't apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rifabutin is known to cause side effects such as hepatitis, flu-like syndrome, low neutrophil count, and ocular pain or blurred vision. Vitamin B6 deficiency is not associated with rifabutin but is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). Therefore, the nurse should not monitor for Vitamin B6 deficiency when administering rifabutin.
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Zestril). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to 'Report any swelling of the lips or face.' Lisinopril (Zestril) can cause angioedema, which is swelling of the lips or face. This is a serious side effect that should be reported immediately. Clients do not need to avoid potassium-rich foods unless instructed by their healthcare provider, should avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice, and should monitor their blood pressure regularly, not just weekly.
A client is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur) transdermal patch for angina. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan is to apply the nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur) transdermal patch at the same time each day. This consistency helps maintain steady blood levels of the medication. While it is important to apply the patch to a hairless area of the skin for proper absorption, it does not necessarily have to be left on for 24 hours; typically, it is worn for 12-14 hours to allow for a nitrate-free period and reduce tolerance. Additionally, the patch can generally be kept on while taking a shower, as water exposure does not typically affect its efficacy.
Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which of the following food items?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Iron absorption is enhanced by the presence of vitamin C. Orange juice is a good source of vitamin C, which can improve the absorption of iron when taken together. Therefore, administering iron supplements with orange juice is the best choice to optimize iron absorption for the child.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client. Before administering the medication, the healthcare provider should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin), the healthcare provider should check the client's heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate is crucial because if it is below 60 beats per minute, the medication should be withheld, and the healthcare provider must be informed. While blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are essential assessments, they are not the primary focus before administering digoxin.
A client receiving nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) calls the health care provider's office complaining of side effects related to the medication. Which side effect indicates the need to stop treatment with this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pulmonary reactions such as cough and chest pain are serious side effects associated with nitrofurantoin that require immediate discontinuation of the medication to prevent potential severe respiratory complications.
A client is receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following potential complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Heparin is an anticoagulant, so the primary potential complication is bleeding. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia are not direct complications of heparin therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is bleeding, as it is the most significant risk associated with heparin administration.
A client is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the client to avoid consuming grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can increase the risk of atorvastatin (Lipitor) toxicity by inhibiting its metabolism. Atorvastatin is typically taken in the evening because cholesterol synthesis occurs at night. Increasing dairy intake is not specifically recommended for atorvastatin use, and the medication can be taken with or without food.
After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.
A client is taking cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec). The nurse checks for which of the following side effects of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec) is known to commonly cause drowsiness or sedation as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of drowsiness when administering this medication. Choice A, Diarrhea, is not a common side effect of cetirizine. Choice B, Excitability, is not a typical side effect of this antihistamine; instead, it tends to cause drowsiness. Choice D, Excess salivation, is not associated with cetirizine use.
While taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ), a client should be instructed to report which symptom if it develops during the course of this medication therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) should be educated about potential blood disorders associated with the medication. Early signs of these disorders include symptoms like sore throat, fever, and pallor. If the client experiences any of these symptoms, they should promptly notify their healthcare provider. Nausea, diarrhea, and headache are common side effects of TMP-SMZ that usually do not require immediate medical attention.
The client with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving daunorubicin (DaunoXome). Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a toxic effect related to the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Crackles on auscultation of the lungs would indicate a toxic effect related to daunorubicin, known to cause cardiotoxicity. Cardiotoxicity can manifest as heart failure, abnormal ECG findings, or cardiomyopathy. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs of cardiotoxicity to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications. Fever, diarrhea, and complaints of nausea and vomiting are common side effects of daunorubicin but do not specifically indicate a toxic effect like cardiotoxicity.
Mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) is prescribed for a client as prophylaxis for organ rejection following an allogeneic renal transplant. Which of the following instructions does the nurse reinforce regarding administration of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for administering mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) is to contact the healthcare provider (HCP) if unusual bleeding or bruising, sore throat, or other adverse effects occur. It is essential not to open or crush the capsules to maintain the medication's efficacy.
A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus was previously well controlled with daily glyburide (DiaBeta). However, the fasting blood glucose level has recently been in the range of 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Prednisone is known to reduce the effectiveness of oral hypoglycemic medications like glyburide and insulin, which can result in hyperglycemia. Therefore, the addition of prednisone to the client's regimen could have contributed to the elevated fasting blood glucose levels observed.
The nurse provides medication instructions to an older hypertensive client who is taking 20 mg of lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) orally daily. The nurse evaluates the need for further teaching when the client states which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lisinopril should be taken daily as prescribed and not skipped. Skipping doses can lead to ineffective treatment.
A community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone 10 mg orally daily has been prescribed for the client. The nurse reinforces teaching for the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken without consulting the health care provider (HCP). The client needs to take the medication at the same time every day and avoid caffeine-containing foods and fluids to prevent steroid-ulcer development.
A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A healthcare provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The therapeutic serum level for digoxin ranges from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. This range is considered optimal for therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels above 2 ng/mL may lead to digoxin toxicity, which can manifest as anorexia among other symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring the digoxin levels to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of the medication.
A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
A client is receiving instructions from a healthcare provider about intranasal desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). The healthcare provider explains that which of the following is a side effect of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Intranasal desmopressin can cause a runny or stuffy nose as a side effect due to its mode of administration through the nasal passages.
A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine (Catapres) transdermal patch. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The client should remove the old clonidine (Catapres) patch before applying a new one to prevent overdose. The patch is typically changed every 7 days. Avoiding alcohol consumption is important as it can potentiate the sedative effects of clonidine. It is recommended to rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal drug absorption.
A client is receiving dietary instructions from a nurse regarding warfarin sodium (Coumadin) therapy. The nurse advises the client to avoid which food item?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Spinach. Spinach is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes the effects of warfarin sodium, an anticoagulant medication. Clients taking warfarin should avoid consuming foods rich in vitamin K, like spinach, to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Grapes (choice A), watermelon (choice C), and cottage cheese (choice D) do not interfere with the effects of warfarin, so they are safe for the client to consume while on warfarin therapy.
Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psychomotor seizures. The nurse reviews the client's health history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated if which of the following disorders is present?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is contraindicated in liver disease due to its potential to cause hepatic toxicity. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is necessary when using this medication to detect any signs of liver damage.
A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.
A client has begun therapy with theophylline (Theo-24). The nurse tells the client to limit the intake of which of the following while taking this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Theophylline is a xanthine bronchodilator. Xanthines are found in coffee, cola, and chocolate. These foods should be limited while taking theophylline to prevent potential drug interactions or adverse effects.
Colcrys (colchicine) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of gout. The nurse reviews the client's medical history in the health record, knowing that the medication would be contraindicated in which disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Colchicine is contraindicated in clients with severe gastrointestinal, renal, hepatic, or cardiac disorders, or blood dyscrasias. Renal failure is a condition where the kidneys fail to function adequately, leading to the accumulation of toxins in the body. Since colchicine is contraindicated in clients with renal disorders, including renal failure, it could exacerbate the condition and worsen the client's health. Myxedema, hypothyroidism, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for colchicine use. While these conditions may require caution or monitoring when administering colchicine, they are not absolute contraindications like renal failure.
The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Metoclopramide, also known as Reglan, is commonly used to manage vomiting following cancer chemotherapy. It acts as a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic, aiding in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Metoclopramide should be avoided in conditions like intestinal obstruction, peptic ulcer with melena, and diverticulitis with perforation due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy.
A client with hyperlipidemia is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Muscle pain can be a sign of a serious side effect of simvastatin (Zocor) known as rhabdomyolysis and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The medication is usually taken in the evening to coincide with the body's natural production of cholesterol. Grapefruit juice should be avoided as it can increase the risk of toxicity by affecting the metabolism of the medication. Additionally, taking simvastatin with a high-fat meal can reduce its effectiveness, so it should be taken without food or with a light meal.
Heparin sodium is prescribed for the client. The nurse expects that the healthcare provider will prescribe which of the following to monitor for a therapeutic effect of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that heparin sodium is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels assess red blood cell concentrations and are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin sodium, which affects the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, not heparin.
Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.
Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) should not be administered to clients with urinary strictures as it can contract the bladder and increase pressure within the urinary tract. In individuals with urinary strictures, this elevated pressure may lead to bladder rupture. Therefore, caution is advised when considering the use of Bethanechol chloride in clients with urinary strictures to prevent potential complications. Gastric atony, neurogenic atony, and gastroesophageal reflux are not contraindications for the administration of Bethanechol chloride for urinary retention.
A client with portosystemic encephalopathy is receiving oral lactulose (Chronulac) daily. The nurse assesses which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In portosystemic encephalopathy, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated blood ammonia levels, which can cause neurological symptoms such as encephalopathy. Lactulose is given to reduce ammonia levels by promoting its excretion through the bowel. Therefore, assessing the blood ammonia level is crucial to determine the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in managing portosystemic encephalopathy.
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