hesi rn exit exam capstone HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A male client with heart failure presents with shortness of breath, audible wheezing, and pink frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed. In heart failure, morphine helps reduce anxiety, preload, and afterload on the heart, improving oxygenation. The client's symptoms indicate acute decompensated heart failure, and morphine should be administered promptly to relieve distress. Consulting the charge nurse (Choice A) or withholding morphine (Choice C) would delay necessary treatment. Reviewing the prescription with the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not needed in this acute situation.

2. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.

3. A client scheduled for a bronchoscopy in the morning is anxious and asking the nurse numerous questions about the procedure. Which intervention has the highest priority in preparing the client for the procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to write down questions is the highest priority as it allows the nurse to address concerns systematically, reducing anxiety. This approach empowers the client and ensures that all concerns are covered before the procedure, reducing the risk of miscommunication or unaddressed fears. Providing detailed education about the procedure (choice A) is important but may not address the client's immediate anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice B) should only be done if other interventions are ineffective or if prescribed by the healthcare provider. Reassuring the client about the safety of the procedure (choice D) is essential but may not address the specific questions and concerns causing anxiety.

4. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.

5. A client with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed donepezil. What is the most important teaching point?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client prescribed donepezil is that it helps improve cognitive function. While it is important to take the medication as directed for best results (choice A) and report any unusual changes in behavior (choice B), the key point is that donepezil is not a cure for Alzheimer's disease (choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Similar Questions

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