HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Quizlet
1. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client reports shortness of breath.
- D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.
2. The healthcare provider identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
- A. Administration of plasma expanders
- B. Use of careful handwashing technique
- C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
- D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Proper handwashing technique is crucial in preventing the transmission of infections, especially in clients with burns where the risk of infection is high. It is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of contamination and promote healing in these clients. While plasma expanders, topical antibacterial creams, and visitor restrictions are important considerations in burn care, meticulous hand hygiene takes precedence in preventing infections. Handwashing helps remove pathogens that could lead to infections, making it essential in the care of clients with burns.
3. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught pursed-lip breathing by the nurse. What is the purpose of this technique?
- A. To promote oxygenation by removing secretions.
- B. To reduce the amount of air trapped in the lungs.
- C. To increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled.
- D. To slow the respiratory rate and improve air exchange.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is used to increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled (C) in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). By doing so, it helps prevent air trapping and enhances gas exchange, ultimately improving respiratory efficiency. While removing secretions (A) and reducing air trapping (B) can be associated benefits to some extent, the primary goal of pursed-lip breathing is to optimize carbon dioxide elimination and enhance breathing mechanics. Slowing the respiratory rate (D) is not the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing.
4. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?
- A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F.
- B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min.
- C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min.
- D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mmHg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.
5. A male client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops cryptococcal meningitis and tells the nurse he does not want to be resuscitated if his breathing stops. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Document the client's request in the medical record.
- B. Ask the client if this decision has been discussed with his healthcare provider.
- C. Inform the client that a written, notarized advance directive is required to withhold resuscitation efforts.
- D. Advise the client to designate a person to make healthcare decisions when the client is unable to do so.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client expresses the desire to not be resuscitated, it is essential to inquire if this decision has been discussed with their healthcare provider. This is important to ensure that the client's wishes are appropriately documented and legally binding through the healthcare provider's guidance. It is crucial that healthcare decisions, especially those involving life-saving measures, are well-communicated and documented to respect the client's autonomy and ensure their wishes are honored. Option A is not the best action as it does not address the need to verify discussion with the healthcare provider. Option C is incorrect as it overemphasizes the need for a notarized advance directive, which may not be immediately feasible or necessary in this urgent situation. Option D is not the most appropriate action at this time since the immediate focus should be on clarifying if the decision has been communicated with the healthcare provider.
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