Free HESI Fundamentals of Nursing practice for HESI Fundamentals Quizlet (HESI RN). Answer 66 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progr
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (B) is the priority intervention for a client with COPD exacerbation to improve oxygenation. In COPD exacerbation, there is impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxemia, making oxygen therapy the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators (A) helps with bronchodilation but should come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (C) and positioning the client in high Fowler's position (D) are also beneficial interventions, but the first step is to address the oxygenation needs of the client.
The healthcare professional is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the healthcare professional include in this procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To maintain patency and ensure proper medication delivery, water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications. This helps prevent clogging of the tube and ensures that both medications are delivered effectively without interference from remnants of the previous medication. Diluting the medications with sterile water before administration (choice A) is unnecessary and may alter the medication concentration. Mixing the medications in one syringe (choice B) could lead to interactions or chemical reactions between the medications. Withdrawing fluid from the tube before instilling each medication (choice D) is not required and may increase the risk of tube displacement or misplacement.
In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should inform the surgeon promptly that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of these issues as it is their responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and ensure that the necessary consent is obtained before proceeding with the surgery. Answering the client's questions directly (choice B) may not be appropriate as the surgeon is the one responsible for providing detailed information about the procedure. Witnessing the client's signature (choice A) is premature since the permit is not signed. Reassuring the client (choice D) is not the most appropriate action at this point; the priority is to involve the surgeon in addressing the unsigned permit and the client's questions.
A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. What instruction should the nurse provide to prepare the client for the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for preparing a client for a colonoscopy is to drink clear liquids for 24 hours before the procedure. This step helps to ensure the bowel is adequately cleared for the colonoscopy, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon.
The client is 5 feet from the bathroom door when he states, 'I feel faint.' Before the nurse can get the client to a chair, the client starts to fall. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority action for the nurse in this situation is to gently lower the client to the floor. This action helps prevent injury to both the client and the nurse. It is important to ensure a safe environment and protect the client from falling, as well as to maintain the nurse's own safety while providing care.
When a client has suffered severe burns all over his body, the most effective method of monitoring the cardiovascular system is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring is the most effective method to assess fluid status and the cardiovascular system in a client with severe burns. Severe burns can lead to significant fluid shifts and hemodynamic changes, making central venous pressure monitoring crucial for guiding fluid resuscitation and managing cardiovascular stability in these patients.
While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client is exhibiting symptoms of normal grief, such as flat affect, withdrawal, and sleep disturbances, following the recent death of his life partner. It is crucial for the nurse to encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor. Grief counseling can provide the client with appropriate support and coping strategies during this grieving process, helping him navigate through his loss and emotions effectively.
When performing sterile wound care in the acute care setting, the nurse obtains a bottle of normal saline from the bedside table that is labeled 'opened' and dated 48 hours prior to the current date. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When performing sterile wound care, it is essential to use only newly opened and unexpired solutions to maintain sterility and prevent infections. The normal saline solution obtained by the nurse is labeled 'opened' and dated 48 hours prior to the current date, making it no longer considered sterile. The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discard the saline solution and obtain a new unopened bottle to ensure the safety and effectiveness of wound care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reusing an already opened and outdated solution or attempting to relabel it with a current date can compromise patient safety and increase the risk of infection.
What action should be implemented to prevent the formation of a sacral ulcer for an immobile client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Positioning the client prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm helps maintain proper alignment and provides optimal pressure relief over the sacral area, reducing the risk of developing a pressure ulcer. This position redistributes pressure away from bony prominences, such as the sacrum, which is crucial in preventing ulcer formation in immobile clients. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to further complications and does not address pressure relief. Choice C is incorrect as raising the head and knee gatch in a supine position does not directly alleviate pressure over the sacrum. Choice D is incorrect as transferring to a wheelchair does not address pressure relief or optimal positioning to prevent sacral ulcers.
Which nonverbal action should be implemented to demonstrate active listening?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To demonstrate active listening effectively, it is essential to display open and engaging body language. Sitting facing the individual helps convey attentiveness and a willingness to listen. Maintaining eye contact further enhances the connection and shows respect and interest in the conversation. Crossing arms and legs can create a barrier and signal defensiveness or disinterest. Avoiding eye contact may suggest a lack of engagement or attentiveness. Leaning back in the chair can indicate relaxation but might be perceived as disengagement. Therefore, the most appropriate nonverbal action to demonstrate active listening is to sit facing the individual and maintain eye contact.
Upon admission, a female client with breast cancer, liver, and spine metastases presents with constant, severe pain despite the continuous use of oxycodone (Percodan) and amitriptyline (Elavil) at home for pain management. What information is most crucial for the nurse to gather during the admission assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most critical information for the nurse to obtain during the admission assessment of a client with severe pain due to breast cancer metastasis to the liver and spine is the sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of the pain. Understanding these details is essential to tailor appropriate pain management therapy effectively. By assessing the sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of pain, the nurse can better determine the underlying cause and choose the most suitable interventions to address the client's pain and improve their quality of life. Trigger points, medication dosages, and sympathetic responses are also important aspects of pain assessment but understanding the sensory aspects of pain is fundamental for providing optimal care in this scenario.
During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.
A client is diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which assessment finding is most commonly associated with this diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Headache (A) is the most commonly associated symptom with primary hypertension due to increased pressure in the blood vessels, leading to headaches. While dizziness (B), fatigue (C), and edema (D) may also occur in hypertension, headache is the most frequently reported symptom among individuals with primary hypertension.
After receiving written and verbal instructions from a clinic nurse about a newly prescribed medication, a client asks the nurse what to do if questions arise about the medication after getting home. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To ensure safe medication use, the nurse should encourage the client to call the clinic nurse or health care provider if any questions arise. Direct communication with healthcare professionals involved in the client's care is crucial to address any concerns promptly and accurately, ensuring the client's safety and understanding of the prescribed medication.
During a sterile procedure at a client's bedside, a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field. What is the best action for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario where a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field during a procedure, it is crucial to identify any breach in surgical asepsis. Any potential contamination should be considered compromised, and the nurse must act promptly to maintain sterility by providing a fresh set of sterile supplies for the procedure to continue safely.
A Native American individual presents to the clinic with complaints of frequent abdominal cramping and nausea. They state that they have chronic constipation and have not had a bowel movement in five days, despite trying several home remedies. Which intervention is most important for the healthcare provider to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is crucial to determine which home remedies the individual has tried to avoid interactions with prescribed treatments and consider cultural practices that may influence their healthcare choices. Understanding the home remedies used can provide insights into the individual's health beliefs, preferences, and potential interactions with conventional treatments, allowing for a more holistic approach to their care.
The healthcare provider obtains a BP reading of 100/88 in the right arm of a client whose blood pressure is typically 120/60 in the same arm. What action should the healthcare provider implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The healthcare provider should first retake the blood pressure in the right arm, deflating the cuff slowly, because a low systolic and high diastolic blood pressure measurement is often the result of deflating the cuff too rapidly. Taking the BP in the same arm ensures consistency and accuracy of the measurement.
What is the main purpose of the working phase of the nurse-patient relationship?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The main purpose of the working phase in the nurse-patient relationship is to implement nursing interventions that are specifically tailored to achieve the expected patient outcomes. During this phase, the nurse actively works with the patient to put the care plan into action and make progress towards reaching the desired health goals. It involves the application of therapeutic communication, problem-solving, and interventions to address the patient's needs. Establishing rapport and trust is typically done in the orientation phase, while defining roles and boundaries usually occurs in the introductory phase of the relationship. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they describe activities more aligned with other phases of the nurse-patient relationship, such as orientation and introductory phases.
By rolling contaminated gloves inside-out, the healthcare professional is affecting which step in the chain of infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When contaminated gloves are rolled inside-out, they are serving as a mode of transmission by carrying pathogens from the reservoir's portal of exit to a new portal of entry. This action increases the risk of transmitting infections from one person to another, emphasizing the importance of proper glove removal techniques to prevent the spread of pathogens. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect in this context. Portal of entry refers to the route through which a pathogen enters a susceptible host, reservoir is the habitat where the pathogen lives, grows, and multiplies, and portal of exit is the path through which a pathogen leaves its host.
Which assessment data would provide the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasogastric tube?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most accurate method to confirm the proper placement of a nasogastric tube is by examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted. This visual assessment allows healthcare providers to directly visualize the position of the tube in relation to anatomical landmarks, ensuring it is correctly placed in the stomach. Aspirating gastric contents or hearing air pass may provide some information but are not as definitive as a chest x-ray for confirming placement. Checking the remaining length of tubing is not a reliable method for determining proper placement as it does not indicate where the tip of the tube lies within the body.
A client has a nursing diagnosis of Altered sleep patterns related to nocturia. Which client instruction is important for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal. By reducing fluid intake before bedtime, the client can minimize the need to void during the night, which can help improve sleep patterns affected by nocturia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking cranberry juice or warm decaffeinated beverage at bedtime may increase fluid intake, exacerbating the nocturia issue. Consulting the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill should not be the first intervention, as it is important to try non-pharmacological approaches first.
A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Coughing, vomiting, and suctioning can precipitate displacement of the tip of the small-bore feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration. Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube (after clearing the tube with 30 ml of air) for acidic (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) values is a more sensitive method for these tubes. The nurse should assess tube placement in this way before taking any other action to ensure the tube is still in the correct position and prevent potential complications. Choice A is incorrect because further assessment is needed due to the risk of tube displacement. Choice B is incorrect as stopping the feeding and involving the family is premature without confirming tube placement. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air and auscultating for gurgling is not the recommended method to confirm tube placement.
A healthcare professional is teaching a new colleague about the correct administration of subcutaneous (subQ) injections. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pinching the skin before inserting the needle is essential in elevating the subcutaneous tissue away from the muscle. This technique ensures that the medication is administered into the correct tissue layer, promoting proper absorption and decreasing the risk of injecting into muscle tissue.
Following a craniotomy, why did the nurse position the client in low Fowler's position?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Positioning the client in low Fowler's position after a craniotomy is essential to promote drainage from the operation site. This position helps prevent fluid accumulation, facilitates the removal of excess fluid or blood, and aids in the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because comfort, while important, is not the primary reason for this specific positioning. Choice C is incorrect as thoracic expansion is not the main concern following a craniotomy. Choice D is incorrect as circulatory overload is not typically addressed by positioning in low Fowler's position post-craniotomy.
When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for the nurse to follow?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Option B is the best procedure for the nurse to follow when assisting a client from the bed to a chair. This option emphasizes the correct positioning of the nurse with feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's, providing a stable base of support. By standing and pivoting the client into the chair, the nurse can maintain control and stability, especially around the client's knees, ensuring a safe transfer.
The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a medication is administered via the IV route, the absorptive process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action. This results in a faster effect of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because changing the route of administration does not necessarily lead to increased tolerance or the need for a higher dose. Choice C is incorrect as changing the route of administration does not directly affect the protein binding of a medication. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the therapeutic index would actually reduce the risk of toxicity, not increase it.
A client with frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) asks the nurse about drinking juice daily to prevent future UTIs. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cranberry juice is known for its ability to prevent urinary tract infections by reducing the adherence of Escherichia coli bacteria to the cells within the bladder. This property helps in maintaining urinary tract health and preventing recurrent UTIs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while vitamin C in orange juice may have some benefits, it is not specifically known for deterring bacterial growth in the urinary tract. Apple juice does not significantly impact urine acidity, and grapefruit juice does not enhance antibiotic absorption, making them less effective choices for preventing UTIs compared to cranberry juice.
After hemodialysis, a client with a history of chronic renal failure has just returned to the unit. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial assessment for the nurse to make after hemodialysis in a client with chronic renal failure is to check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill (D). This assessment is essential to ensure the patency of the fistula and adequate blood flow. Auscultating lung sounds (A), assessing blood pressure (B), and monitoring weight (C) are important assessments but are secondary to evaluating the fistula. Checking the fistula is vital as it directly impacts the effectiveness of the client's dialysis treatment and the patency of the vascular access, ensuring successful dialysis sessions.
The healthcare professional counts an adult's apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The healthcare professional describes this as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. In this case, an adult's heart rate of 110 beats per minute falls within the range of tachycardia. Tachycardia can be a common physiological response to various stresses on the body, leading to an increased heart rate. Asystole refers to the absence of cardiac activity, bigeminy is a specific heart rhythm pattern, and bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.
The healthcare professional is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. What action should the healthcare professional take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's response to a painful stimulus indicates a purposeful reaction, which should be accurately documented as per the assessment findings. This documentation is essential for ongoing monitoring and communication of the client's condition to the healthcare team.
A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The statement 'I should continue taking my over-the-counter herbal supplements' (D) indicates a need for further teaching because some herbal supplements can interact with anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to inform healthcare providers about all medications, including herbal supplements, to prevent adverse interactions. The other statements reflect appropriate understanding of precautions related to DVT and anticoagulation therapy.
A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. These are the primary laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not directly related to the effects of this medication. Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps assess the response to the treatment.
How should the nurse prepare the body of a deceased adult for transfer to the mortuary?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When preparing the body of a deceased adult for transfer to the mortuary, it is essential to bathe the body and place identification tags on it. This process ensures proper identification and respectful care of the deceased individual.
An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. It is crucial for the nurse to assist the client to the bathroom to prevent potential injuries. Leaving the client alone may lead to accidents due to the effects of the medication. Monitoring and supporting the client during this activity is essential for ensuring safety and preventing falls.
A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping a food diary is a good first step to understand eating habits before making any dietary or activity changes.
A client with a diagnosis of anemia is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To evaluate the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia, the nurse should monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. These values indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, which directly relates to the treatment of anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia.
The client is being taught about the use of syringes and needles for home administration of medications. Which action by the client indicates an understanding of standard precautions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Washing hands before handling needles and syringes is a crucial aspect of standard precautions to prevent infections. This practice helps reduce the risk of transferring microorganisms from the hands to the syringes and needles, thus promoting safety during medication administration.
A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most effective pain management strategy in hospice care involves administering analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule (A) to maintain pain control. Waiting until pain is severe before administering medication (B) is not ideal as it may lead to inadequate pain relief. While providing comfort is crucial in hospice care, sedation that prevents the client from interacting and experiencing their remaining time should be minimized. Therefore, keeping the client comfortable without excessive sedation (C) is preferred. Allowing for some periods without medication (D) may be appropriate but should not compromise the client's comfort and pain control.
What intervention should the healthcare provider include in the plan of care for a client receiving treatment with an Unna's paste boot for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When an Unna's paste boot is applied for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency, it is crucial to check the capillary refill of the toes on the lower extremity to ensure adequate circulation. The Unna's paste boot can become rigid after drying, potentially affecting circulation distally. Monitoring capillary refill helps assess the perfusion status of the distal extremity and ensures that the treatment is not compromising circulation to the toes.
A healthcare professional is working in an occupational health clinic when an employee walks in and states that he was struck by lightning while working in a truck. The client is alert but reports feeling faint. Which assessment will the healthcare professional perform first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a person is struck by lightning, it can cause an electrical shock that may affect the heart rhythm. Therefore, assessing pulse characteristics is crucial as lightning can act as a natural defibrillator. Monitoring the pulse rate and regularity will help determine if there are any cardiac abnormalities that need immediate attention. Open airway, entrance and exit wounds, and cervical spine injury assessments are also important but assessing pulse characteristics takes precedence in this situation to address potential cardiac issues.
When is the first dose of Hepatitis B vaccine typically administered?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine is usually administered at birth in the hospital to provide early protection against the virus. Giving the vaccine at birth helps prevent perinatal transmission of Hepatitis B from an infected mother to her newborn. This early administration is crucial in establishing immunity in infants, as delaying the vaccine increases the risk of infection. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because delaying the administration of the Hepatitis B vaccine can leave infants vulnerable to the virus during the critical early months of life when they are most susceptible.
A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment because she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. For droplet precautions, such as in the case of pertussis, a standard face mask is sufficient for protection. Particulate filter masks are required for airborne precautions, not for droplet precautions. Therefore, the UAP can proceed with taking the vital signs using a standard mask without the need for a particulate filter mask. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to get fitted for a particulate filter mask before providing care in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as fitting for a particulate filter mask is not necessary for droplet precautions. Choice D is also incorrect because determining which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks is not relevant to the UAP's situation with the client on droplet precautions. It is important for healthcare workers to understand the appropriate use of personal protective equipment based on the type of precautions in place to provide safe and effective care to clients.
During a home visit, an elderly female client who had a brain attack three months ago and can now ambulate with a quad cane is assessed by the nurse. Which assessment finding has the greatest implications for this client's care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The presence of numerous scatter rugs throughout the house poses a significant safety hazard to the client who is ambulating with a quad cane. These rugs increase the risk of tripping and falling, making it the most critical finding that needs immediate attention to prevent potential injuries and ensure the client's safety during ambulation.
The nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Which action is most important for the nurse to include in their care plan for the shift?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To ensure accurate creatinine clearance results, it is crucial to collect all urine within the 24-hour period. The process should begin with discarding the first specimen and then collecting all subsequent urine in the designated 24-hour collection container. This ensures that the sample is complete and accurate for the creatinine clearance calculation.
When culturing a wound, the nurse should obtain the sample from which part of the wound?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To collect a wound culture, the nurse should first clean the wound to remove skin flora and then insert a sterile swab from a culturette tube into the wound secretions.
What is the most effective way to implement a teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most effective way to implement a teaching plan is to teach the information that the learner wants to learn first. Teaching should be learner-centered, responding to the individual's needs and preferences. Learning is most successful when it addresses the specific interests and goals of the learner, as it increases motivation and engagement. By starting with what the learner is interested in, you can create a more effective and engaging learning experience.
In taking a client's history, the nurse asks about the stool characteristics. Which description should the nurse report to the health care provider as soon as possible?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Daily black, sticky stool. Black sticky stool (melena) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and should be reported to the health care provider promptly. This finding indicates the presence of digested blood in the stool. Choices B, C, and D describe variations of normal stool color and consistency, which do not raise immediate concerns related to gastrointestinal bleeding.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client who is experiencing fluid volume deficit (dehydration). Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring daily weights is an accurate method to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy because changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance. Fluid volume deficit can be objectively evaluated by monitoring daily weights as it provides a more precise measurement of fluid status over time. Assessing skin turgor (choice B) is subjective and may not provide as accurate or measurable data as monitoring daily weights. Evaluating blood pressure trends (choice C) can give information about circulatory status but may not directly reflect fluid volume status. Checking urine specific gravity (choice D) can indicate the concentration of urine but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid balance like monitoring daily weights does.
When discussing dietary preferences with a client adhering to a vegan diet, which dietary supplement should the nurse encourage the client to include in the dietary plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vitamin B12 is an essential nutrient predominantly found in animal products. Individuals following a vegan diet, which excludes animal products, are at a higher risk of vitamin B12 deficiency. Encouraging the client to include a vitamin B12 supplement in their dietary plan is crucial to prevent deficiency-related health issues. Choices A, B, and C are not specific to addressing the deficiency that vegan diets may cause. Fiber, folate, and ascorbic acid are important but do not directly address the risk of vitamin B12 deficiency in vegan diets.
When turning an immobile bedridden client without assistance, which action best ensures client safety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to put bed rails up on the side of the bed opposite from the nurse. This action is essential to prevent the client from falling out of bed during the turning process. Since the nurse can only stand on one side of the bed, having the bed rails up on the opposite side provides an additional safety measure. Securing the client's arm and leg or lowering the head of the bed would not prevent the client from falling and may pose a risk of injury. Using a turn sheet correctly can be helpful, but ensuring the bed rails are up is a more direct safety measure in this situation.
The client is being instructed on the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler. Which instruction should be provided to ensure the optimal benefits from the drug?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct technique for using a metered-dose inhaler involves compressing the inhaler while slowly breathing in through the mouth. This method helps ensure that the medication reaches deep into the lungs, allowing for optimal bronchodilation effect. Inhaling quickly through the nose or filling the lungs with air before compressing the inhaler are not recommended techniques for using a metered-dose inhaler effectively.
A client is receiving external radiation therapy for lung cancer. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Instructing the client to avoid using deodorant on the skin near the radiation site (C) is crucial to prevent skin irritation and potential adverse reactions during external radiation therapy. Sunscreen (A), heating pad (B), and dietary changes (D) are less pertinent in this situation.
When a student nurse is caught taking a copy of a client's medication administration record to help a friend prepare for the next day's clinical, what should the nurse respond first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response when a student nurse is caught taking a copy of a client's medication administration record is to explain that the records are hospital property and cannot be removed. It is essential to educate the student about the confidentiality and security of patient information, emphasizing that even with the client's consent, such actions are unacceptable. Option A is not the immediate action needed, as addressing the student directly should come first. Option B involves notifying another party before addressing the student directly. Option C is incorrect because even if the client gave permission, patient records are confidential and cannot be shared without authorization.
The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's statement that 'This is a new pill I have never taken before' indicates the need for further assessment by the nurse to ensure the medication is correct and safe. Choices A, B, and C do not raise immediate concerns about the medication order; therefore, they are incorrect. Choice A simply provides information about the client's usual medication schedule, choice B is related to the cost of the pills, and choice C expresses fatigue from taking pills, but none of these statements suggest a potential issue with the new medication.
While interviewing a client, the nurse records the assessment in the electronic health record. Which statement is most accurate regarding electronic documentation during an interview?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choosing electronic documentation during an interview may hinder the nurse's ability to observe the client's nonverbal cues. Nonverbal communication, such as body language and facial expressions, plays a crucial role in understanding a client's feelings and needs. Focusing on entering data electronically may lead to missing important nonverbal cues that could provide valuable insights into the client's condition or emotions.
A CVA (stroke) patient goes into respiratory distress and is placed on a ventilator. The client's daughter arrives with a durable power of attorney and a living will that indicates there should be no extraordinary life-saving measures. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider needs to be informed to review the legal documents provided by the patient's daughter, such as the durable power of attorney and living will, which specify the patient's wishes regarding life-saving measures. The healthcare provider will be responsible for making the appropriate decision based on the legal documents and the patient's current condition. Referring to the risk manager (choice A) is not necessary as the issue at hand pertains to the patient's medical care. Discontinuing the ventilator (choice C) without healthcare provider input could go against the patient's wishes and legal documents. Reviewing the medical record (choice D) may not provide immediate guidance on the current situation and the patient's preferences regarding life-saving measures.
At 0100 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client has expressed a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating that he is managing his inability to sleep. In this situation, it is best for the nurse to respect the client's autonomy and leave the room, providing privacy and an opportunity for the client to relax and hopefully fall asleep. Closing the door can also help create a quiet environment conducive to rest.
While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A stable oxygen saturation reading of 94% indicates that the nurse can continue with the suctioning procedure. It is within an acceptable range, and there is no immediate need to interrupt the procedure. Continuing with the suctioning will help maintain airway patency and promote adequate oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unnecessary when the reading is stable. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support stopping the suctioning procedure solely based on the oxygen saturation reading of 94%. Choice D is not the best action at this point, as applying an oxygen mask is not indicated when the oxygen saturation is stable and within an acceptable range.
A client with a suspected kidney infection is admitted to the hospital for observation. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the client's kidney function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring urine output is the most direct way to assess kidney function as it provides crucial information about the kidneys' ability to filter waste and produce urine. Changes in urine output can indicate potential issues with kidney function, such as decreased filtration or impaired excretion of waste products.
A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most beneficial?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During this challenging time of dealing with a terminal cancer diagnosis, involving the wife in the care process can be highly beneficial. By asking the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care, it allows her to feel more in control and connected. This approach fosters a collaborative care environment, ensuring that the wife's preferences and needs are taken into consideration. Providing information about hospice (choice B) may be premature at this stage and could potentially overwhelm the family. Encouraging the wife to visit during and after painful treatments (choice C) may not address her need for involvement in decision-making. Referring the wife to a support group (choice D) is helpful but may not directly involve her in the care process of her husband.
The nurse is preparing to administer 2 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which action should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Verifying the blood type and crossmatch with another licensed nurse is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions and ensure the client's safety. This step helps confirm that the correct blood type is being transfused to the client, reducing the risk of adverse reactions and promoting safe care. Obtaining informed consent (Choice A) is important but not directly related to ensuring the safety of the transfusion. Reviewing the client's medical history for transfusion reactions (Choice B) is relevant but not as crucial as verifying the blood type and crossmatching. Assessing baseline vital signs (Choice C) is a routine practice before transfusion but ensuring the correct blood type is a higher priority.
During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.
The nurse plans to assist a male client out of bed for the first time since his surgery yesterday. His wife objects and tells the nurse to get out of the room because her husband is too ill to get out of bed. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before assisting the client out of bed, the nurse should first assess the client's blood pressure and pulse. This assessment is crucial to determine the client's physiological stability and readiness for ambulation. It ensures the client's safety during the transfer and helps prevent any potential complications that may arise from getting out of bed. Administering oxygen, lying the client back down, or quickly moving the client to a chair without assessing vital signs can compromise the client's safety and may lead to adverse outcomes.
While changing a client's post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given a positive MRSA result, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Initiating contact precautions is crucial in this situation to prevent the spread of MRSA infection. MRSA is a highly contagious bacterium that can spread through direct contact with an infected wound or by touching contaminated surfaces. By implementing contact precautions, the nurse can help contain the infection and protect other patients, healthcare workers, and visitors from being exposed to MRSA.
When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client's laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The symptoms of fatigue, muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are classic manifestations of hypokalemia. Potassium plays a vital role in muscle function and cardiac conduction, so a deficiency can lead to these symptoms. Checking the client's laboratory values for potassium levels will help confirm the presence of hypokalemia.
A female client's significant other has been at her bedside providing reassurances and support for the past 3 days, as desired by the client. The client's estranged husband arrives and demands that the significant other not be allowed to visit or be given condition updates. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a situation where a client's estranged husband demands to restrict the visitation of the significant other, it is essential to prioritize the client's wishes while addressing the conflict. Requesting a consultation with the ethics committee is appropriate as it allows for a comprehensive and impartial resolution, ensuring the client's autonomy and well-being are upheld. Option A is incorrect because visitation privileges are not solely determined by a healthcare provider's prescription in this scenario. Option C may not be appropriate as it puts the client in a potentially uncomfortable or unsafe position. Option D, while important, does not directly address the conflict between the estranged husband and the significant other.
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