Free HESI Obstetrics and Pediatrics practice for Pediatric HESI Quizlet (HESI RN). Answer 68 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progre

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HESI Obstetrics and Pediatrics
Practice Questions

What is the recommended analgesia for preparing a school-age child for a lumbar puncture (LP)?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. EMLA (eutectic mixtures of local anesthetics) 2.5 hours before the procedure.

Explanation:

For a lumbar puncture in a school-age child, EMLA cream should be applied 2.5 hours before the procedure. EMLA is commonly used to numb the skin, reducing pain and discomfort for the child during the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ondansetron is an antiemetic, codeine is an opioid analgesic that may not be suitable for children, and transdermal fentanyl is a strong opioid that is not typically used for local anesthesia in children undergoing lumbar puncture.

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A 9-year-old child is brought to the clinic with a fever, rash, and swollen joints. The nurse notes that the child had a sore throat two weeks ago that was not treated. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Rheumatic fever

Explanation:

In this scenario, the child's symptoms of fever, rash, and swollen joints following an untreated sore throat two weeks ago are indicative of rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can develop as a complication of untreated streptococcal infections, leading to systemic inflammation and affecting various organs, including the joints. This condition manifests with symptoms such as fever, rash, and swollen joints, aligning with the child's presentation in this case. Scarlet fever typically presents with a sandpapery rash and strawberry tongue but does not involve joint inflammation. Kawasaki disease presents with fever, rash, and mucous membrane changes but does not typically involve joint swelling. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint swelling but is not directly linked to a recent untreated sore throat.

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A 7-year-old is admitted to the hospital with persistent vomiting, and a nasogastric tube attached to low intermittent suction is applied. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L.

Explanation:

A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is significantly low and indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. The other findings are not as critical in this situation. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours may be expected in a patient with persistent vomiting. The shift intake of IV fluids and ice chips indicates fluid replacement, which is important but not as urgent as correcting electrolyte imbalances. A serum pH of 7.45 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

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A 16-year-old female student with a history of asthma controlled with both an oral antihistamine and an albuterol (Proventil) metered-dose inhaler (MDI) comes to the school nurse. The student complains that she cannot sleep at night, feels shaky and her heart feels like it is 'beating a mile a minute.' Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. How often the MDI is used daily.

Explanation:

The most important information for the nurse to obtain in this scenario is how often the MDI is used daily. This is crucial to assess if the symptoms the student is experiencing, such as insomnia, shakiness, and tachycardia, could be related to overuse of the inhaler. Overuse of albuterol can lead to side effects like tremors, palpitations, and difficulty sleeping, so understanding the frequency of MDI use is key in determining a potential cause for the student's symptoms. Options A, B, and C are not as pertinent in this situation as they do not directly address the possible link between the student's symptoms and the use of the albuterol MDI.

HESI Obstetrics and Pediatrics
Practice Questions

What information should the practical nurse ensure the family understands about caring for a child with a tracheostomy?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

Explanation:

The correct answer is A: Cardiopulmonary resuscitation. It is essential for families to be educated in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to manage emergencies involving patients with tracheostomies. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial for the child's safety and well-being. Choice B, hygiene practices, although important, is not as critical as CPR in managing a tracheostomy. Choice C, the proper technique for tracheostomy suctioning, is also crucial but does not take precedence over CPR in emergency situations. Choice D, application of powder around the stoma, is not a standard practice and may not be necessary for tracheostomy care.

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The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of thyroid therapy used to treat a 5-month-old with hypothyroidism. Which behavior indicates that the treatment has been effective?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Laughs readily, turns from back to side.

Explanation:

In infants, laughing readily and turning from back to side are indicative of normal development. These behaviors indicate that the thyroid therapy is effective, as they suggest the baby is achieving age-appropriate milestones. A 5-month-old infant should be able to laugh readily and turn from back to side, showing progress in motor and social development. Choices B, C, and D describe behaviors that are not specific to the expected developmental milestones of a 5-month-old. Strong Moro and tonic neck reflexes, clenched fists, and limited ability to lift the chest when lying on the abdomen are not necessarily indicative of the effectiveness of thyroid therapy for hypothyroidism.

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A 3-year-old with HIV infection is staying with a foster family who is caring for 3 other foster children in their home. When one of the children acquires pertussis, the foster mother calls the clinic and asks the nurse what she should do. Which action should the nurse take first?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Review the immunization documentation of the child who has HIV.

Explanation:

The priority action for the nurse is to review the immunization documentation of the child with HIV to ensure they have received the necessary vaccines. This step is crucial in protecting the child's health and preventing further complications from vaccine-preventable diseases like pertussis. By reviewing the immunization documentation first, the nurse can determine the child's protection against pertussis and other infectious diseases. Removing the child from the foster home (Choice A) may not be necessary if the child is adequately vaccinated. Reporting the exposure to the health department (Choice B) and placing the child in reverse isolation (Choice C) are important steps but reviewing the immunization status takes precedence to assess the child's protection and guide further actions.

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The parents of a 15-month-old boy tell the nurse that they are concerned because their son brings his spoon to his mouth but does not turn it over. What action should the nurse implement first?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Question the parents about their concern

Explanation:

The initial action for the nurse is to question the parents about their concerns. By doing so, the nurse can gather more information to understand the situation better. This helps in determining if the child's behavior is within normal development or if further action or referrals are necessary. Choice A is incorrect as it jumps to a specialist referral without fully assessing the situation first. Choice C is also incorrect because assuming the parents need advice on proper spoon handling techniques may not be the case. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the core concern raised by the parents.

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A 16-year-old male client who has been treated in the past for a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital. Immediately after admission, he begins to have a grand mal seizure. Which action should the nurse take?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Observe him carefully.

Explanation:

During a grand mal seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Observing the client carefully allows the nurse to monitor the seizure activity, the client's breathing, and any signs of distress without interfering with the seizure process. Restraining the client or placing objects in the mouth can lead to injury and should be avoided. Calling a CODE is not appropriate for a seizure as it is a normal response to the client's condition.

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A 10-year-old girl who has had type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) for the past two years tells the nurse that she would like to use a pump instead of insulin injections to manage her diabetes. Which assessment of the girl is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Understanding of the quality control process used to troubleshoot the pump

Explanation:

In a patient transitioning to an insulin pump, understanding the quality control process to troubleshoot the pump is crucial for ensuring proper and safe management of diabetes. This knowledge enables the individual to identify and address any issues that may arise with the pump, helping maintain optimal glycemic control and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D, although important in diabetes management, are not as critical as ensuring the correct understanding of troubleshooting the pump, which directly impacts the girl's ability to effectively use the pump for insulin delivery.

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A 2-year-old is admitted to the hospital with possible encephalitis, and a lumbar puncture is scheduled. Which information should the nurse provide this child concerning the procedure?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Describe the side-lying, knees-to-chest position that must be assumed during the procedure.

Explanation:

Children, especially young ones, benefit from knowing what position they will be in during a procedure as it helps them understand and feel more in control. Describing the side-lying, knees-to-chest position can reduce anxiety and promote cooperation during the lumbar puncture. Choice B is incorrect because the question is about preparing the child for the procedure, not about pre-procedure fasting requirements. Choice C is incorrect because there may be restrictions on activity after the procedure. Choice D is incorrect because mentioning loud clicking noises may increase the child's anxiety and fear.

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The healthcare provider is preparing to suture a 10-year-old child with a lacerated forehead. Both parents and a 12-year-old sibling are present at the child's bedside. Which instruction best supports family involvement?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Please decide who will stay when the healthcare provider begins suturing.

Explanation:

Involving the family members in deciding who will stay when the healthcare provider begins suturing supports family involvement and helps reduce anxiety for the child. This approach respects the family's dynamics and preferences, promoting a supportive environment during the procedure.

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A child is recovering from an appendectomy. The parent asks when the child can resume normal activities. What is the best response by the nurse?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. The child should avoid strenuous activities for at least 2 weeks

Explanation:

After an appendectomy, it is important for the child to avoid strenuous activities for at least 2 weeks to allow for proper healing. Resuming normal activities too soon can put unnecessary strain on the healing process and increase the risk of complications.

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The practical nurse is providing care for a toddler who has just returned from surgery for a tonsillectomy. Which intervention is a priority in the immediate postoperative period?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Monitor for frequent swallowing.

Explanation:

Monitoring for frequent swallowing is a priority intervention in the immediate postoperative period after a tonsillectomy. Frequent swallowing may indicate bleeding from the surgical site, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications such as hemorrhage. Offering clear fluids frequently may not be appropriate immediately after surgery. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may increase the risk of bleeding. Applying a warm compress to the throat area is not recommended as it can increase blood flow to the surgical site, potentially causing bleeding.

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What action should the nurse implement when the infusion of chemotherapy via an implanted medication port is complete for a 16-year-old with acute myelocytic leukemia at the outpatient oncology clinic?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Flush mediport with saline and heparin solution

Explanation:

The correct action for the nurse to implement when the chemotherapy infusion is complete is to flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution. This process helps prevent clotting and ensures the patency of the port, which is essential for future medication administrations and blood draws. Administering Zofran (Choice A) is not necessary after completing the chemotherapy infusion. Obtaining blood samples (Choice B) for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets is important but not the immediate action after completing the infusion. Initiating an infusion of normal saline (Choice D) is not required unless there is a specific indication for it.

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A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Administer the scheduled dose.

Explanation:

Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

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The healthcare provider is preparing a teaching plan for the parents of a 6-month-old infant with GERD. What instruction should the healthcare provider include when teaching the parents measures to promote adequate nutrition?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Mix the formula with rice cereal

Explanation:

The correct instruction for promoting adequate nutrition in a 6-month-old infant with GERD is to mix the formula with rice cereal. This thickens the feed, reducing the risk of reflux, aiding in proper nutrition, and minimizing GERD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Alternating glucose water with formula, adding multivitamins with iron to the formula, or diluting the formula with water are not recommended measures for promoting adequate nutrition in infants with GERD.

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The parents of a 3-month-old infant are being educated by the healthcare provider about safe sleep practices. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. We will keep our baby in our bed so we can monitor them closely

Explanation:

The correct answer is C. Co-sleeping, or keeping the baby in the parents' bed, increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). It is crucial for parents to place the baby in a separate crib or bassinet to ensure a safe sleep environment and reduce the risk of SIDS. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate understanding of safe sleep practices by mentioning placing the baby on their back, using a firm mattress and avoiding soft bedding, and not putting toys or pillows in the crib, which are all measures to promote safe sleep and reduce the risk of SIDS.

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The caregiver is providing discharge instructions to the parents of a 6-month-old infant who was hospitalized for bronchiolitis. Which statement by the parents indicates a correct understanding of the instructions?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. We should keep our baby away from people with colds

Explanation:

Keeping the infant away from people with colds is crucial to prevent the spread of respiratory infections, especially for infants recently hospitalized with bronchiolitis. This precaution helps protect the baby from further illnesses and promotes recovery. The other choices are incorrect because it is important to complete the prescribed medication course even if the baby seems better to ensure the infection is fully treated (Choice B). Solid foods are usually introduced around six months of age, so avoiding them entirely may not be necessary (Choice C). Placing the baby to sleep on their back is a safe sleep practice to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) but may not directly help with breathing in the context of bronchiolitis (Choice D).

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While auscultating the lung sounds of a 5-year-old Chinese boy who recently completed antibiotic therapy for pneumonia, the nurse notices symmetrical, round, bruise-like blemishes on his chest. What action is best for the nurse to take?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Inquire about the use of alternative treatment methods.

Explanation:

Inquiring about the use of alternative treatment methods is essential to understand cultural practices and provide holistic care. It allows the nurse to gather more information about the blemishes and potentially uncover traditional or alternative healing approaches that the family may have used. This approach demonstrates cultural sensitivity and a comprehensive assessment before making assumptions or taking further actions. Identifying the antibiotics used for treating pneumonia (Choice A) is not immediately necessary in this context as the focus is on the blemishes. Asking about a recent accident (Choice C) assumes a traumatic cause without evidence. Reporting suspected child abuse (Choice D) is premature without further assessment or evidence of abuse.

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The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Metabolic alkalosis.

Explanation:

Pyloric stenosis leads to obstruction at the outlet of the stomach, causing frequent vomiting and loss of stomach acids. This results in a loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis due to an increase in serum bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect as it is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Choice C, metabolic acidosis, is incorrect because the loss of stomach acids in pyloric stenosis leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D, respiratory alkalosis, is also incorrect as it is not the usual consequence of pyloric stenosis.

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When assessing a 10-year-old newly diagnosed with osteomyelitis, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Recent history of infection recurrences.

Explanation:

In a 10-year-old with newly diagnosed osteomyelitis, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is the recent history of infection recurrences. This is crucial because osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, and assessing for any recent recurrence of infections can help in determining the possible source of the osteomyelitis and guide the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in the immediate assessment of a newly diagnosed case of osteomyelitis as they do not directly impact the current infection or treatment plan.

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Following a motor vehicle collision, a 3-year-old girl has a spica cast applied. Which toy is best for the nurse to offer this child?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Set of cloth and hand puppets.

Explanation:

In this scenario, a set of cloth and hand puppets is the best choice for a 3-year-old with a spica cast. Hand puppets encourage imaginative play, creativity, and interaction, which are developmentally appropriate for a child of this age. The soft materials are safe for the child and can provide entertainment and engagement without posing a risk of injury. The other options, such as a duck that squeaks, a fashion doll and clothes, and a handheld video game, may not be as suitable for a child in a spica cast due to safety concerns, lack of interactive play, or developmental appropriateness.

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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her 17-year-old mother. When the nurse observes that the child is drinking sweetened soda from her bottle, what information should the nurse discuss with this mother?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Dental caries is associated with drinking soda

Explanation:

Dental caries are a common concern when children consume sweetened sodas regularly.

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When should oral hygiene practices start for an infant according to the American Dental Association guidelines?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Begin wiping the teeth with a washcloth and water when the first tooth appears.

Explanation:

According to the American Dental Association guidelines, oral hygiene practices should start as soon as the first tooth appears. At this stage, using a soft cloth and water to clean the infant's gums and teeth is recommended to establish good oral hygiene habits early on and prevent dental issues. Choice A is incorrect as waiting until all baby teeth are in is too late for starting oral hygiene practices. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential to start oral hygiene before the child can handle a toothbrush. Choice C is incorrect as using toothpaste on a gauze pad is not recommended for infants with emerging teeth.

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The healthcare provider finds a 6-month-old infant unresponsive and calls for help. After opening the airway and finding the infant is still not breathing, which action should the provider take?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Give two breaths that make the chest rise.

Explanation:

In pediatric basic life support, for an unresponsive infant who is not breathing normally, the correct action is to give two breaths that make the chest rise. This helps provide oxygen to the infant's body and is a crucial step in resuscitation efforts for infants in distress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Palpating the femoral pulse or feeling the carotid pulse is not indicated in this scenario where the infant is unresponsive and not breathing. Delivering cycles of chest compressions and breaths is not the immediate action to take; the priority is to provide two breaths to help with oxygenation.

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When observing a distraught mother scolding her 3-year-old son for wetting his pants in the hallway of a pediatric unit, what initial action should the nurse take?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Provide disposable training pants while calming the mother.

Explanation:

In this situation, the nurse's initial action should be to provide disposable training pants to manage the immediate issue of wetting while also calming the mother. This approach addresses the current distressing situation and offers a practical solution to alleviate the mother's concerns.

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The child is 3 years old and is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding indicates arterial obstruction?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. The right foot feels cool to the touch and appears pale and blanched.

Explanation:

A cool, pale, and blanched foot is indicative of arterial obstruction, leading to poor blood flow. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Monitoring for signs of arterial compromise, such as color changes, temperature, and capillary refill, is crucial in detecting and managing vascular complications post-cardiac catheterization. Choices A, C, and D do not directly indicate arterial obstruction. While a decreasing blood pressure and rapid, irregular pulse may suggest compromise, these findings are more nonspecific. A weaker pulse distal to the femoral artery indicates reduced perfusion but not necessarily arterial obstruction. Finally, a damp, oozing pressure dressing suggests a dressing issue rather than arterial obstruction.

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The mother of an 11-year-old boy with juvenile arthritis tells the nurse, 'I really don't want my son to become dependent on pain medication, so I only allow him to take it when he is really hurting.' Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this mother?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Giving pain medication around the clock helps control the pain

Explanation:

It is crucial for the nurse to educate the mother that giving pain medication around the clock helps manage pain effectively and improves the child's quality of life. This approach ensures a more consistent level of pain relief and prevents the pain from becoming severe, which can be more challenging to manage. Choices A, B, and C do not address the importance of consistent pain management and may not provide adequate relief for the child's condition.

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The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with diarrhea and lethargy. Which finding should the provider identify that is consistent with early dehydration?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Tachycardia

Explanation:

Tachycardia is a common early sign of dehydration in infants. It is important for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring infants with these symptoms, as prompt intervention is crucial to prevent further complications.

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A 2-year-old child with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is being treated in the hospital. What should the healthcare provider monitor for in this child?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Labored breathing.

Explanation:

Labored breathing is a critical sign of worsening respiratory distress in children with RSV. It indicates that the child's condition may be deteriorating, requiring prompt intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring for labored breathing allows healthcare providers to promptly assess and manage the child's respiratory status, potentially preventing further complications associated with RSV infection.

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A 6-year-old child is diagnosed with rheumatic fever and demonstrates associated chorea (sudden aimless movements of the arms and legs). Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Muscle tension is decreased with fine motor project skills, so these activities should be encouraged

Explanation:

Chorea associated with rheumatic fever is usually temporary and will subside over time.

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A child with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) who is receiving chemotherapy via a subclavian IV infusion has an oral temperature of 103 degrees. In assessing the IV site, the nurse determines that there are no signs of infection at the site. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Obtain a specimen for blood cultures.

Explanation:

Obtaining a specimen for blood cultures is crucial in this situation as it helps identify the source of infection, if present, and guide appropriate treatment. This is important in a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy to prevent potential complications and ensure timely intervention. Assessing the CBC may provide overall information on the child's condition but may not specifically identify a potential infection. Monitoring the oral temperature is important but obtaining blood cultures takes precedence in this scenario. Administering acetaminophen can help reduce fever but does not address the need to identify a possible infection source.

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A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 to 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Flaring of the nares.

Explanation:

Flaring of the nares is a clinical sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates an increased effort to breathe and is a crucial finding that requires immediate attention, as it signifies the child is having difficulty breathing and may be in respiratory distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds may be present in conditions like pneumonia but do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic respiration is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute in a 4-month-old infant is within the expected range, so it does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.

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A 6 year old who has asthma is demonstrating a prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing and has a 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR). Based on these findings, what actions should the nurse take first?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.

Explanation:

Administering a bronchodilator will help open the airways and improve breathing.

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When teaching parents of a 5-year-old child with sickle cell anemia about pain management, what information should be included?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Administer prescribed pain medication at the first sign of pain.

Explanation:

Administering prescribed pain medication at the first sign of pain is crucial in managing sickle cell anemia-related pain effectively. Prompt administration helps prevent the pain from escalating and becoming severe, enhancing the child's comfort and quality of life. Cold compresses, rest, and diet modifications may play supportive roles but are not as directly impactful in addressing acute pain episodes associated with sickle cell anemia. Therefore, while comforting measures like cold compresses and rest are helpful, they should not replace the importance of timely administration of prescribed pain medication. Additionally, offering a high-protein diet, although important for overall health, is not directly linked to managing acute pain in sickle cell anemia.

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During a routine assessment of a 3-year-old at a community health center, the healthcare professional should be alert for signs of autism spectrum disorder. Which behavior by the child should prompt further evaluation for a possible autistic spectrum disorder?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Engages in odd repetitive behaviors

Explanation:

Engaging in odd repetitive behaviors is a hallmark sign of autism spectrum disorder in children. These behaviors can include repetitive movements, insistence on sameness, or specific routines. Recognizing and addressing these behaviors early can help in providing appropriate interventions and support for the child.

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A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Blood pressure of 70/40.

Explanation:

A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.

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A middle school student was recently diagnosed with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and is having trouble with his grades. He is referred to the school nurse by the teacher because he continues to have learning problems. Which action should the school nurse take?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Refer the child to the school counselor for educational testing

Explanation:

Referring the child to the school counselor for educational testing is the most appropriate action in this scenario. This step can help identify the specific learning needs of the student and determine the appropriate interventions required to support his academic success. Option A is not the immediate action needed but may be considered in the future. Option B focuses on homework assistance, which may not address the underlying learning problems. Option D involves consulting the school principal, which is not the primary role in addressing the student's learning needs.

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A 12-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of osteomyelitis. Which finding should the nurse expect during the assessment?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Localized pain and swelling

Explanation:

In osteomyelitis, an infection of the bone, patients typically present with localized pain, swelling, and warmth over the affected bone. This is due to the inflammatory response in the bone tissue. Generalized joint stiffness, pain in the muscles, and limited range of motion in the limbs are not specific to osteomyelitis and are more commonly associated with other conditions.

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The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities

Explanation:

The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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Following admission for cardiac catheterization, the nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a 2-year-old toddler with tetralogy of Fallot. What instruction should the nurse give the parents if their child becomes pale, cool, and lethargic?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Contact their healthcare provider immediately

Explanation:

If a child with tetralogy of Fallot becomes pale, cool, and lethargic, these symptoms may indicate a hypoxic episode or worsening condition. It is crucial to contact the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Option A is incorrect because electrolyte solution intake is not the immediate action needed for these symptoms. Option B is incorrect as positioning alone may not address the underlying issue. Option D is incorrect as providing a quiet time is not appropriate if the child is experiencing concerning symptoms that require prompt medical attention.

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When should a mother introduce solid foods to her 4-month-old infant? The mother states that her mother suggests putting rice cereal in the baby's bottle. The nurse should instruct the mother to introduce solid foods when her child exhibits which behavior?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Opens mouth when food is offered

Explanation:

Introducing solid foods when the child opens their mouth for food is important to ensure readiness for solids. This behavior indicates the infant's interest and readiness for new textures and flavors, promoting safe and successful introduction to solid foods. The other choices are not indicative of the infant's readiness for solid foods: A - stopping rooting is a reflex action, C - awakening for nighttime feedings is a normal behavior, and D - transitioning from a bottle to a cup is a developmental milestone unrelated to solid food introduction.

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A 2-week-old female infant is hospitalized for the surgical repair of an umbilical hernia. After returning to the postoperative neonatal unit, her RR and HR have increased during the last hour. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Notify the healthcare provider of these findings

Explanation:

In a postoperative neonatal setting, an increase in respiratory rate (RR) and heart rate (HR) in an infant could indicate pain or distress. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider promptly to assess the infant's condition and provide appropriate interventions. Prompt communication with the healthcare provider ensures timely evaluation and management of the infant's discomfort or distress, promoting optimal postoperative recovery and comfort. Administering analgesics without healthcare provider assessment could mask underlying issues, documenting findings alone does not address the immediate need for intervention, and comforting may not resolve the underlying cause of increased RR and HR.

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An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.

Explanation:

In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

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A 7-year-old child with type 1 diabetes is brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse notes that the child's blood glucose level is 350 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Administer IV fluids as prescribed

Explanation:

In a child with type 1 diabetes presenting with abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a high blood glucose level, the priority is to administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which are crucial in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering insulin without addressing fluid deficits can lead to further complications. While monitoring urine output and checking for ketones are important steps in the care of a child with diabetes, the immediate focus should be on correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances through IV fluid administration to stabilize the child's condition.

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A child admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis is demonstrating Kussmaul respirations. The nurse determines that the increased respiratory rate is a compensatory mechanism for which acid-base alteration?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Metabolic acidosis.

Explanation:

Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breathing patterns observed in metabolic acidosis, such as diabetic ketoacidosis. In this condition, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate to eliminate excess carbon dioxide (CO2) and decrease the acid levels, thereby helping to correct the acid-base imbalance. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic acidosis.

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A child with leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis 'altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting' is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child's plan of care?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Allow the child to eat any food desired and tolerated.

Explanation:

Allowing the child to eat any food desired and tolerated is the most appropriate intervention for a child with altered nutrition due to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. It is crucial to prioritize maintaining adequate nutritional intake, and by allowing the child to choose foods they desire and can tolerate, the chances of improving their nutritional status increase. This approach helps in ensuring that the child receives necessary nutrients during chemotherapy, even if their appetite is affected by the treatment. Encouraging a variety of large portions of food at every meal (Choice A) may overwhelm the child and worsen their symptoms. Recommending eating the food as siblings eat at home (Choice C) may not align with the child's preferences and tolerances. Restricting food brought from fast food restaurants (Choice D) is not suitable as it may limit the child's options and preferences during a challenging time.

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The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant. Which response requires further evaluation by the nurse?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Demonstrates startle reflex.

Explanation:

At 6 months old, the startle reflex should diminish, so its persistence warrants further evaluation by the nurse. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate developmental milestones for a 6-month-old infant. By 6 months, infants typically double their birth weight, exhibit localization of sound by turning their head, and engage in interactive play like peek-a-boo.

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What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family

Explanation:

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.

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After observing a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate followed by two ounces of orange juice, what should the nurse do next?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Give positive feedback about the way she administered the sulfate.

Explanation:

Providing positive feedback to the mother for correctly administering the iron supplements is essential as it reinforces proper medication administration practices. This encouragement can help build the mother's confidence and ensure that she continues to administer the supplements correctly in the future, promoting the infant's health and well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no need to suggest altering the administration method, changing the liquid used, or restricting feeding immediately after administering the iron supplement. Giving positive feedback is the most appropriate action in this scenario to acknowledge the mother's correct administration technique.

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When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.

Explanation:

Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

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An adolescent's mother calls the primary HCP's office to inquire about the results of her daughter's serum test that was drawn last week. Since it is the teenager's 18th birthday, how should the nurse respond to this mother's inquiry?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Explain that the information cannot be released without the 18-year-old's permission

Explanation:

The correct response is to explain to the mother that the information cannot be released without the 18-year-old's permission. When an individual turns 18, they are legally considered an adult, and privacy laws mandate that their consent is required before sharing their medical information with others. It is crucial to respect the adolescent's autonomy and privacy rights. Choices A and C are incorrect because they involve disclosing the information without the individual's consent. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the legal requirement for the adolescent's permission before sharing medical information.

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A 7-year-old child with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with a respiratory infection. The nurse is teaching the child's parents about the importance of chest physiotherapy (CPT). Which statement by the parents indicates they need further teaching?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. We should perform CPT right after the child eats.

Explanation:

The correct answer is C. Chest physiotherapy should not be performed right after meals to avoid inducing vomiting. It should be done before meals or at least 1 hour after for effective mucus clearance and to prevent any potential complications like vomiting. Choice A is correct as performing CPT before meals helps in loosening mucus. Choice B is also correct as CPT is indeed helpful in loosening mucus in the lungs. Choice D is correct as CPT plays a crucial role in the treatment of cystic fibrosis.

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A 12-year-old child with type 1 diabetes is under the nurse's care. The child's parent asks how to prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity. What is the nurse's best response?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Make sure your child eats a snack before exercise

Explanation:

The most effective way to prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity in a child with type 1 diabetes is to ensure they eat a snack before exercising. Eating a snack before exercise helps maintain blood glucose levels by providing additional glucose for energy during physical activity, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia. Giving extra insulin before exercise (Choice A) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia as it lowers blood glucose levels further. Limiting physical activity (Choice C) is not recommended as exercise is important for overall health. Monitoring blood glucose levels after exercise (Choice D) is essential but does not directly prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity.

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The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child's parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child's trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Explanation:

In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.

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The parents of a 4-year-old child who has just been diagnosed with celiac disease are being educated by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the parents indicates a correct understanding of the condition?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. We need to avoid giving our child foods containing wheat, barley, and rye

Explanation:

Choice B is the correct answer because for individuals with celiac disease, a strict gluten-free diet is essential for managing the condition. Foods containing wheat, barley, and rye must be completely avoided to prevent adverse reactions and damage to the intestines. This dietary restriction is crucial to ensure the child's health and well-being in managing celiac disease effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because giving small amounts of gluten occasionally, limiting dairy products, or taking gluten-free supplements are not sufficient measures to manage celiac disease. Complete avoidance of gluten-containing foods is necessary to prevent complications.

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A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Review the child's dietary habits and insulin administration technique

Explanation:

A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child's dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child's insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

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A 7-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse notes that the child has gained 3 pounds in the past 24 hours. What should the nurse do first?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: C. Notify the healthcare provider

Explanation:

In a child with nephrotic syndrome experiencing sudden weight gain, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. This weight gain could indicate worsening edema or fluid retention, necessitating immediate medical evaluation and intervention. The healthcare provider can conduct a comprehensive assessment, order necessary tests, and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Administering a diuretic, restricting fluid intake, or measuring abdominal girth should not be initiated without healthcare provider consultation to ensure appropriate management of the child's condition.

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A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child's oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose

Explanation:

In a child presenting with ear pain and fever, asking if the child has had a runny nose is crucial in assessing possible causes of an ear infection. Respiratory infections can lead to secondary ear infections, so exploring symptoms related to upper respiratory tract infections, like a runny nose, can help in the evaluation and management of the child's condition. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not a nurse, and only if necessary. Choice C is incorrect because applying a topical antibiotic without proper evaluation and prescription is not within the nurse's scope of practice. Choice D is incorrect because while parent education may be necessary, addressing the immediate concern of evaluating possible causes of the ear pain and fever takes priority.

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A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child's oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose

Explanation:

In a child with ear pain and fever, asking about a runny nose is important to assess if the ear pain is associated with a respiratory infection, such as otitis media. This information can guide further assessment and treatment decisions. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as topical antibiotics should only be applied under healthcare provider's orders. Choice D is not the priority at this moment, as the immediate concern is assessing the association between the ear pain and a possible respiratory infection.

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A mother brings her 3-week-old infant to the clinic because the baby vomits after eating and always seems hungry. Further assessment indicates that the infant's vomiting is projectile, and the child seems listless. Which additional assessment finding indicates the possibility of a life-threatening complication?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: D. Crying without tears

Explanation:

In this scenario, the infant presenting with vomiting, lethargy, and projectile vomiting indicates a potential serious condition. Crying without tears is a sign of dehydration, a critical condition that can lead to life-threatening complications in infants. Dehydration can rapidly worsen an infant's condition, making prompt intervention crucial to prevent further complications. Irregular palpable pulse (Choice A) could indicate a cardiovascular issue but is less immediately life-threatening in this context. Hyperactive bowel sounds (Choice B) are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues rather than a life-threatening complication. Underweight for age (Choice C) may be concerning for growth-related issues but does not directly indicate a life-threatening complication like dehydration does.

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The caregiver is caring for a 10-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections. The parents are concerned about their child's hearing and speech development. What is the caregiver's best response?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Let's schedule a hearing test and refer to a speech therapist if needed

Explanation:

The appropriate response for the caregiver is to address the parents' concerns by suggesting scheduling a hearing test and potentially referring the child to a speech therapist if necessary. This proactive approach can help evaluate and support the child's hearing and speech development effectively. Choice B is incorrect as assuming that most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays may overlook potential issues that need intervention. Choice C is wrong because waiting until adolescence to address concerns may lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the parents' valid concerns without offering a solution or further evaluation.

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A 9-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child has a history of iron-deficiency anemia. What is the nurse's priority action?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Administer iron supplements as prescribed

Explanation:

In a child with a history of iron-deficiency anemia presenting with symptoms of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, the priority action for the nurse is to administer iron supplements as prescribed. Iron supplementation is essential to treat iron-deficiency anemia and improve the child's symptoms promptly. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is important but administering iron supplements takes precedence to address the underlying cause. Educating parents about dietary iron sources is valuable for prevention but not the immediate priority. Notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary but should not delay the initiation of treatment with iron supplements.

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A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. 1875 mg

Explanation:

To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.

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A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. The child's parent reports that the pain started suddenly and is located in the lower right abdomen. What should the nurse do first?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Explanation:

The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The child's presentation of sudden, severe abdominal pain in the lower right abdomen is highly concerning for appendicitis, a medical emergency. Promptly notifying the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and management. Administering pain medication as the first action might mask symptoms and delay diagnosis. Starting an IV line for fluid administration and obtaining a complete blood count are important interventions but should come after healthcare provider notification.

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In a 7-year-old child with a history of asthma experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation and displaying wheezing and the use of accessory muscles to breathe, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator

Explanation:

The correct answer is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator. During an acute asthma exacerbation in a child with wheezing and increased work of breathing, the priority intervention is to provide immediate bronchodilation to dilate the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. This intervention aims to manage the acute asthma attack effectively and prevent further respiratory distress. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or notifying the healthcare provider are important actions, but administering a bronchodilator takes precedence in addressing the acute respiratory compromise.

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In a hospitalized child receiving IV fluids for dehydration, what is the best indicator that the child's dehydration is improving?

Select the best answer.

Correct Answer: A. The child's urine output increases

Explanation:

An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator of improving dehydration in a child. It signifies that the kidneys are functioning better, helping to restore fluid balance in the body. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing hydration status and response to treatment. Choices B, C, and D are not the best indicators of improving dehydration. Normal skin turgor is helpful but may not change immediately with improving hydration. Weight increase may reflect retained fluids rather than improved hydration status. Stable vital signs are important but may not always indicate improving dehydration.

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