hesi rn exit exam 2024 capstone HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! In right-sided congestive heart failure, jugular vein distention is a common finding due to the backup of blood in the systemic circulation. This results in increased venous pressure, leading to jugular vein distention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased urinary output, pleural effusion, and bibasilar crackles are more commonly associated with other conditions such as kidney dysfunction, lung issues, and pulmonary edema.

2. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.

3. During a neurologic assessment of a client with a suspected stroke, which finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sudden loss of consciousness in a client with a suspected stroke is the most concerning finding as it indicates a more severe neurological event, such as brain stem involvement or hemorrhage, requiring immediate intervention. While unilateral facial droop, slurred speech, and weakness in one arm are all common signs of a stroke, sudden loss of consciousness signifies a critical condition that needs urgent attention and evaluation to prevent further complications.

4. The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high-protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Grilled chicken is an excellent source of protein, which is important for wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal for wound healing. Choice A contains high-fat and high-sugar components like chips and ice cream, which may not support wound healing effectively. Choice B includes croutons and ranch dressing, which may not provide as much protein as needed for wound healing. Choice D with a peanut butter and jelly sandwich and soda lacks a balanced meal with adequate protein to promote wound healing.

5. When monitoring tissue perfusion following an above the knee amputation (AKA), which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Evaluating the closest proximal pulse is essential when monitoring tissue perfusion post-amputation. This pulse provides crucial information about the circulation and perfusion to the limb. Observing the color and amount of wound drainage (Choice B) is more related to wound healing assessment rather than tissue perfusion. Observing for swelling around the stump (Choice C) may indicate inflammation or infection but is not the most direct assessment of tissue perfusion. Assessing skin elasticity of the stump (Choice D) is important for skin integrity but does not directly reflect tissue perfusion.

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