hesi rn exit exam 2024 capstone HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. Which task could be safely delegated by the nurse to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because tasks like applying and caring for a client's rectal pouch are within the UAP's scope of practice, as they do not require clinical judgment. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex assessments or interventions that require clinical judgment and should be performed by licensed nursing staff.

2. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

3. The nursing student is discussing with a preceptor the delegation of tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks, delegated to a UAP, indicates the student needs further teaching about the delegation process?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Caring for a client with discharge orders involves tasks that require critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are beyond the scope of a UAP. Delegating this task to a UAP can compromise patient safety and outcomes. The correct answer is C. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate tasks to delegate to a UAP based on their training and scope of practice. Assisting a client to ambulate, feeding a pediatric patient in traction, and collecting a sputum specimen are tasks that can be safely performed by a UAP under appropriate supervision.

4. A client receiving full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding develops diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops diarrhea from continuous enteral tube feeding, diluting the feeding to half strength and continuing at the same rate is the appropriate intervention. This helps reduce the strength of the feeding, minimizing gastrointestinal upset while still providing necessary nutrition. Stopping the feeding abruptly (Choice A) may lead to nutritional deficits. Simply reducing the feeding rate (Choice C) may not effectively address the issue of diarrhea. Adding fiber (Choice D) could potentially worsen the diarrhea in this scenario instead of resolving it.

5. A female client experiences a sudden loss of consciousness and is taken to the emergency department. Initial assessment indicates her blood glucose level is critically low. Once stabilized, she reports being treated for anorexia nervosa. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Joining a group that focuses on self-esteem is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's discharge plan. This can help the client address underlying emotional issues related to her anorexia nervosa and improve her mental health. Choice A is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet may not address the psychological factors contributing to anorexia nervosa. Choice C is incorrect as scheduling an outpatient psychosocial assessment is important but not the most crucial intervention for discharge planning in this case. Choice D is also not the priority as teaching relaxation techniques, although beneficial, may not directly address the self-esteem and emotional issues that need to be tackled in this situation.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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