HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?
- A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
- B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
- C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
- D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Addison's disease. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with this condition?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hyperpigmentation
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hyperpigmentation is a characteristic symptom of Addison's disease. In Addison's disease, there is a decrease in cortisol production, leading to an increase in adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secretion by the pituitary gland. Excess ACTH can stimulate melanocytes, resulting in hyperpigmentation. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Hypertension is more commonly associated with conditions involving excess cortisol production, such as Cushing's syndrome. Hyperglycemia may occur in diabetes mellitus but is not a hallmark of Addison's disease. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is a common symptom of Addison's disease due to decreased cortisol levels.
3. A client with DM is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should plan to:
- A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period.
- B. Give the client a regular diet as ordered.
- C. Have the client stop taking insulin 48 hours before surgery.
- D. Hold the client's insulin on the morning of surgery.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. For a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) scheduled for surgery, it is essential to closely monitor blood glucose levels to prevent hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because giving the client a regular diet as ordered may not address the specific needs related to managing blood glucose levels in the perioperative period. Choice C is incorrect as abruptly stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels, which is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because holding the client's insulin on the morning of surgery can also disrupt blood sugar control, potentially leading to complications during the perioperative period.
4. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.
5. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?
- A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
- B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
- C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
- D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.
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