HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?
- A. Leukopenia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.
2. A client with DM is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should plan to:
- A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period.
- B. Give the client a regular diet as ordered.
- C. Have the client stop taking insulin 48 hours before surgery.
- D. Hold the client's insulin on the morning of surgery.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. For a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) scheduled for surgery, it is essential to closely monitor blood glucose levels to prevent hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because giving the client a regular diet as ordered may not address the specific needs related to managing blood glucose levels in the perioperative period. Choice C is incorrect as abruptly stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels, which is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because holding the client's insulin on the morning of surgery can also disrupt blood sugar control, potentially leading to complications during the perioperative period.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease. The client exhibits signs of hypotension, dehydration, and confusion. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?
- A. Insulin
- B. Hydrocortisone
- C. Levothyroxine
- D. Methimazole
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol. Hydrocortisone is a glucocorticoid medication that is used to replace deficient cortisol levels in patients with Addison's disease. It helps stabilize blood pressure and fluid balance. Insulin (Choice A) is used to manage diabetes, not Addison's disease. Levothyroxine (Choice C) is a thyroid hormone replacement used to treat hypothyroidism, not Addison's disease. Methimazole (Choice D) is used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism, not Addison's disease.
4. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
- A. Initiate insulin therapy.
- B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
- C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
- D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.
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