Free HESI Nutrition practice for HESI Nutrition Practice Exam (HESI RN). Answer 46 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress trackin
A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because fibroids that are asymptomatic usually do not require treatment or removal. The statement 'Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out' indicates a need for further education. Choice A correctly states the frequency of fibroids in women and their age group. Choice B accurately describes fibroids as noncancerous slow-growing tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with uterine fibroids.
A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has a burn injury and adheres to a strict vegan diet. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Beans are an excellent choice for a client with a burn injury who follows a strict vegan diet. They are a rich source of protein, essential for healing, making them the most suitable option among the choices provided. Tuna salad (choice A) is not suitable for a vegan diet as it contains animal products. While fresh fruit (choice B) and vegetables (choice C) are healthy options, they may not provide sufficient protein needed for healing from a burn injury.
A client is receiving intravenous antibiotics for the treatment of a severe infection. Which of these assessments is a priority for the nurse to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is receiving intravenous antibiotics, checking the IV site for signs of phlebitis is a priority assessment for the nurse. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the vein, which can lead to serious complications such as infection and thrombosis. Monitoring the IV site helps prevent these complications and ensures the safe delivery of antibiotics. While monitoring the client's temperature, pain level, and respiratory status are important assessments, they are not the priority in this scenario where IV antibiotic administration requires close monitoring for complications like phlebitis.
A nurse is caring for a client following the surgical placement of a colostomy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the dietary teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Yogurt contains probiotics which can help reduce gas and odor in colostomy patients. Choice B is incorrect because pasta is a low-fiber food that can help thicken stools, which may be beneficial for colostomy patients. Choice C is incorrect because it is generally recommended for colostomy patients to have their largest meal earlier in the day to allow for better digestion. Choice D is incorrect because carbonated beverages can actually increase gas production and worsen odor in colostomy patients.
A client with heart failure has Lanoxin (digoxin) ordered. What would the nurse expect to find when evaluating for the therapeutic effectiveness of this drug?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When evaluating the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in a client with heart failure, the nurse should expect to find improved respiratory status and increased urinary output. Digoxin helps improve cardiac output and reduces fluid accumulation, leading to improved breathing and increased urinary output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diaphoresis with decreased urinary output, increased heart rate with increased respirations, and decreased chest pain with decreased blood pressure are not indicative of the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure management.
Which of these findings would the nurse most closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips is a classic sign of anemia in infants, indicating a lack of sufficient red blood cells. This finding is due to decreased hemoglobin levels, which causes reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to anemia in infants. While a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL may be within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant, the presence of pale mucosa is a more indicative sign of anemia.
Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.
A nurse at a provider's office is reinforcing teaching with a client who is being treated with chemotherapy and is losing weight. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give to increase the client's caloric intake? (Select one that doesn't apply).
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Increasing fluids during meals does not directly contribute to increasing caloric intake. Topping yogurt with granola, using honey on toast, and using milk instead of water in recipes are effective ways to boost caloric intake. While adequate fluid intake is important for hydration and overall health, it does not address the specific need to increase caloric intake in this scenario.
A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. The nurse should explain that which of the following food sources contains iron that is most easily absorbed by the body?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Chicken.' Heme iron from animal sources, such as chicken, is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron from plant sources like spinach, dried apricots, and lentils. While plant-based iron sources are beneficial, they are not as readily absorbed by the body as heme iron from animal products.
A client is lactose intolerant, and a nurse is reinforcing teaching. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement for a client who is lactose intolerant is to decrease dairy products since lactose intolerant individuals should avoid dairy to prevent symptoms like bloating, diarrhea, and gas. Increasing fiber (Choice A) or calories (Choice B) is not directly related to lactose intolerance. Decreasing vitamin D (Choice D) is not necessary as lactose intolerance is about the sugar in dairy, not vitamin D.
While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.
A client in a long term care facility complains of pain. The nurse collects data about the client's pain. The first step in pain assessment is for the nurse to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'get the description of the location and intensity of the pain.' When a client complains of pain, the initial step in pain assessment is to gather information about the location and intensity of the pain. This helps the nurse understand the nature of the pain and lays the groundwork for further assessment and management. Choice A is incorrect because identifying coping methods comes later in the assessment process. Choice C is incorrect as accepting the client's report of pain is important, but not the first step. Choice D is incorrect as determining the client's pain status also comes after gathering information about the pain.
A parent asks the school nurse how to eliminate lice from their child. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pediculicides are the recommended treatment for lice and should be used to eliminate the infestation.
An elderly client admitted after a fall begins to seize and loses consciousness. What action by the nurse is appropriate to do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take next is to stay with the client and observe for airway obstruction. This is crucial as it ensures immediate intervention if there is any airway compromise. Choice B is incorrect as padding the side rails of the bed is not the priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because inserting an oral airway and suctioning should only be done if there is evidence of airway obstruction, and it is not the initial step. Choice D is incorrect as announcing a cardiac arrest and assisting with intubation is not the immediate action needed when a client is seizing and losing consciousness.
What nursing assessment of a paralyzed client would indicate the probable presence of a fecal impaction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Oozing liquid stool.' In a paralyzed client, oozing liquid stool is a common sign of fecal impaction. This occurrence requires prompt intervention to prevent complications. Choice A, 'Presence of blood in stools,' is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than fecal impaction. Choice C, 'Continuous rumbling flatulence,' is associated with gas movement in the intestines and not specifically linked to fecal impaction. Choice D, 'Absence of bowel movements,' could be a sign of constipation but does not directly point towards fecal impaction.
A client underwent coronary artery bypass grafting and is learning about following a low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following food choices indicates the client's understanding of these dietary instructions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Beans. Beans are an excellent choice for individuals following a low-cholesterol diet post-coronary artery bypass grafting due to their low cholesterol content. Beans are high in fiber and protein, making them a heart-healthy option. Choice A, Liver, is high in cholesterol and should be avoided in a low-cholesterol diet. Choice B, Milk, contains cholesterol and saturated fats, which are not ideal for this diet. Choice D, Eggs, are also high in cholesterol and should be limited in a low-cholesterol diet.
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease. This finding suggests active bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, requiring immediate attention. A normal heart rate of 72 beats per minute (choice A) is within the expected range. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL (choice B) is also within normal limits. Nausea and vomiting (choice D) are common symptoms associated with peptic ulcer disease but may not necessarily indicate active bleeding like black, tarry stools.
A 20-year-old client has an infected leg wound from a motorcycle accident and has returned home from the hospital. The client is to keep the affected leg elevated and is on contact precautions. The client wants to know if visitors can come. The appropriate response from the home health nurse is that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Visitors should wash their hands before and after touching the client.' When a client is on contact precautions, it is essential for visitors to practice good hand hygiene to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a mask and a gown might be necessary for healthcare providers, it is not typically required for visitors. Option B is incorrect because there are indeed special requirements for visitors on contact precautions, including practicing good hand hygiene. Option D is incomplete and does not provide any guidance on infection prevention measures.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has diabetes and is overweight. The client tells the nurse that she wants to start an exercise program. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's usual pattern of activity is crucial as it helps the nurse understand the client's current level of physical activity, any limitations, and areas needing improvement. This information is essential to create a safe and effective exercise plan tailored to the client's specific needs. Choice B, assisting the client in developing a healthy eating plan, is important but not the first step when the client's immediate goal is to start an exercise program. Encouraging the client to join a support group may be beneficial for motivation and emotional support but is not the priority at this stage. Providing a list of signs and symptoms to report to the provider is important for client education but is not the initial step when the client expresses a desire to begin an exercise program.
After a client was taken off the ventilator following surgery, they have a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. Which nursing measure will provide the most comfort to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Performing frequent oral care with a tooth sponge is the most appropriate nursing measure to provide comfort to a client with a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. This measure helps to maintain oral hygiene, prevent dryness, and enhance overall comfort. Allowing the client to suck on ice chips may not address oral hygiene needs, providing mints focuses more on breath freshness rather than comfort, and swabbing the mouth with glycerin swabs may not effectively address oral care needs.
Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when clients are receiving antipsychotic drugs since it is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to symptoms like dizziness and falls, making it essential to monitor blood pressure regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because most antipsychotic drugs do not typically cause elevated blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the amount of sodium in the diet, and blood pressure monitoring is not primarily used to determine the need for anti-parkinsonian drugs in clients receiving antipsychotic medications.
The nurse has been teaching a client with Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Shaking the NPH insulin bottle hard can cause air bubbles and affect dosing accuracy; it should be rolled gently instead.
A client is receiving treatment for hypothyroidism. Which of these assessments would be most concerning to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg would be most concerning to the nurse because changes in blood pressure can indicate worsening hypothyroidism, potentially leading to complications such as myxedema coma. A heart rate of 70 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are within normal ranges and not typically directly associated with hypothyroidism complications.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check the client's oxygen saturation level first. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of dyspnea and determining the necessity for oxygen therapy. Administering oxygen therapy without knowing the current oxygen saturation level can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Encouraging deep breathing exercises and raising the head of the bed are important interventions, but assessing the oxygen saturation level takes precedence in managing dyspnea in a client with COPD.
When speaking with a group of teens, which side effect of chemotherapy for cancer would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hair loss is the correct answer. Teens are often more concerned about hair loss because of its visible impact and social implications. While mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, hair loss tends to be a significant concern for teens due to its effect on self-image and confidence.
A client has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of these nursing diagnoses should receive the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D: Activity intolerance related to fatigue.' This nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority for a client with hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism often leads to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and muscle discomfort, which can significantly impact the client's ability to perform daily activities. Addressing activity intolerance is crucial to prevent exacerbation of symptoms and promote the client's overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are important nursing diagnoses as well, but in the context of hyperthyroidism, addressing activity intolerance takes precedence over the risk for injury related to exophthalmos, impaired social interaction related to emotional lability, and imbalanced nutrition due to hypermetabolism.
An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking the client's gag reflex is crucial in this situation as coughing while consuming liquids can indicate a risk of aspiration. Assessing the gag reflex can help determine if the client is safe to swallow without inhaling fluids into the lungs, which could lead to further respiratory complications. Adding a thickening agent may not address the underlying issue of aspiration risk. Feeding the client only solid foods is not appropriate without assessing the swallowing safety first. Increasing the rate of intravenous fluids does not directly address the client's difficulty with liquid intake.
The client is preparing for a myelogram. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a contraindication for this test?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An allergy to shrimp is a contraindication for a myelogram because the contrast dye used in the procedure contains iodine, which can trigger allergic reactions in individuals allergic to shellfish. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for a myelogram. Inability to lie still for an extended period, claustrophobia, or a previous headache after a spinal tap are concerns that can be managed during the procedure but do not necessarily prevent the test from being performed.
When administering enteral feeding to a client via a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When administering enteral feeding through a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula continuously. Continuous feeding is essential for optimal nutrient absorption and to prevent complications. Administering the formula every four to six hours, in a bolus, or every hour may lead to inadequate nutrition, improper absorption, and an increased risk of complications such as aspiration or dumping syndrome, making these choices incorrect.
A client with diabetes is being educated about the dietary source that should provide the greatest percentage of their calories. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. In diabetes management, complex carbohydrates should constitute the largest portion of the diet as they help in maintaining steady energy levels and managing blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because a high-fat diet can lead to complications in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as simple sugars can cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect as protein, while important, should not be the main source of calories for a diabetic individual.
The nurse receives an order to give a client iron by deep injection. The nurse knows that the reason for this route is to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Deep injection helps to prevent tissue irritation caused by iron, which can be damaging to tissues. Option A is incorrect because deep injection does not primarily aim to enhance absorption, but rather to prevent tissue irritation. Option B is incorrect as the route of administration does not determine whether the entire dose is given. Option C is incorrect because the even distribution of the drug is not the main purpose of deep injection in this context.
A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of these instructions should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.' Before a colonoscopy, it is essential to cleanse the colon thoroughly by drinking a bowel preparation solution. This helps to ensure that the colon is clear for the procedure, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding eating or drinking after midnight, having a light breakfast, and avoiding medications are not specific instructions related to the colonoscopy preparation process.
A nurse is to collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) from a client. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assisting with oral hygiene is the essential initial step before collecting a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) to prevent contamination of the sample. Ensuring the client's mouth is clean reduces the risk of introducing unwanted bacteria into the specimen. Asking the client to cough sputum into a container, having the client take deep breaths, and providing a specimen container are important steps in the specimen collection process, but they should follow ensuring proper oral hygiene.
The nurse is teaching an 87-year-old client methods for maintaining regular bowel movements. The nurse would caution the client to AVOID
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Laxatives. Laxatives can be harsh on elderly clients, leading to dependence and potential side effects. While fiber supplements (B) and stool softeners (D) are generally safe options to promote regular bowel movements, laxatives should be used cautiously in older adults due to their potential risks. Glycerin suppositories (A) can also be a safe and effective option for managing constipation in the elderly, but laxatives should be avoided unless deemed necessary by a healthcare provider.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has neutropenia as a result of radiation therapy for the treatment of lung cancer. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with neutropenia should avoid foods that may be contaminated to prevent infections. Increasing fluid intake is important to stay hydrated, but it's crucial to use safe sources like bottled water to reduce the risk of infection. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a client with neutropenia. Salad bars may contain raw or unwashed produce, soft-boiled eggs may carry a risk of contamination, and buffets may have food items that are not recommended for someone with neutropenia.
While providing home care to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is asked how long diuretics must be taken. What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diuretics must be continued to control fluid retention, as stopping them can lead to worsening of congestive heart failure.
Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, a preschooler with intermittent alertness. This client may not have the cognitive ability to effectively use a PCA pump due to their age and alertness level. They may not understand how to self-administer the analgesia. Choices A, B, and C are more appropriate candidates for PCA as they are likely to have better comprehension and ability to operate the PCA pump compared to a preschooler with intermittent alertness.
The client with congestive heart failure has been educated about proper nutrition. The selection of which lunch indicates the client has learned about sodium restriction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple. This lunch choice is suitable for a client with congestive heart failure as it is low in sodium. Sliced turkey is a lean protein choice, and canned pineapple is a low-sodium fruit option. Choice A contains high-sodium items like cheese and 2% milk. Choice C includes a cheeseburger, which is typically high in sodium, and a baked potato could also be high in sodium depending on preparation. Choice D consists of mushroom pizza and ice cream, both of which can be high in sodium, especially in processed or restaurant-prepared forms.
The nurse is caring for a client undergoing the placement of a central venous catheter line. Which of the following would require the nurse's immediate attention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Dyspnea indicates a potential complication such as pneumothorax or incorrect catheter placement, requiring immediate attention. Pallor may indicate anemia but is not as urgent as dyspnea in this context. Increased temperature could be a sign of infection but is not as critical as respiratory distress. Involuntary muscle spasms are not directly related to central venous catheter placement and are of lower priority compared to respiratory issues.
A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.
A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who is receiving chemotherapy and is showing manifestations of malnutrition. Which of the following indicates a Vitamin C deficiency?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Swollen, bleeding gums are a classic sign of scurvy, which is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin C. Dry, red conjunctiva, inflammation of the tongue, and pale, brittle nails are not specific manifestations of Vitamin C deficiency, making them incorrect choices.
A nurse is providing care to a 63-year-old client with pneumonia. Which intervention promotes the client's comfort?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping conversations short is the most appropriate intervention to promote comfort for a client with pneumonia. Pneumonia can be physically exhausting, and limiting the length of conversations helps conserve the client's energy. Encouraging visits from family and friends (Choice B) may be emotionally supportive but might not directly promote comfort in the context of conserving energy during recovery. Increasing oral fluid intake (Choice A) is important for hydration but may not directly address the client's comfort. Monitoring vital signs frequently (Choice D) is essential for assessing the client's condition but does not directly promote comfort.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching to transition from breastfeeding to whole milk with the parents of an infant. Which of the following months of age should the nurse recommend for transitioning the infant to whole milk?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 12 months. Whole milk should be introduced at 12 months to ensure the infant's digestive system can handle the increased fat content. Introducing whole milk before 12 months can lead to digestive issues and potential allergies. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because transitioning to whole milk before 12 months is not recommended for infants due to their digestive system still developing and not being able to handle the higher fat content of whole milk.
While caring for a client who was admitted with myocardial infarction (MI) 2 days ago, the nurse notes today's temperature is 101.1 degrees Fahrenheit (38.5 degrees Celsius). The appropriate nursing intervention is to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should administer acetaminophen as ordered because a slight fever is normal after an MI. This intervention can help manage the fever unless other complications are present. Calling the health care provider immediately is not necessary for a slight fever post-MI. Sending blood, urine, and sputum for culture is not indicated solely based on a slight fever without other symptoms or signs of infection. Increasing fluid intake may be beneficial for various reasons but is not the priority in this situation where managing the fever with acetaminophen is appropriate.
A client is receiving teaching about a high-fiber diet to manage constipation. Which statement indicates the best choice for a high-fiber diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because bran cereal is a high-fiber food that can effectively alleviate constipation by promoting regular bowel movements. Option A, an apple, while a healthy snack, may not provide as much fiber as bran cereal. Option B, sweet potatoes, are nutritious but may not be as high in fiber as bran cereal. Option D, almonds, are a good source of healthy fats and protein but do not provide as much fiber as bran cereal.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a group of older adults about oil-rich foods. The nurse should include which of the following foods as the equivalent of 4 tsp of oil?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 2 tbsp of peanut butter. Two tablespoons of peanut butter is approximately equivalent to 4 teaspoons of oil, providing healthy fats in the diet. Choice A, 1 tbsp of soft margarine, is not equivalent to 4 tsp of oil as margarine contains additional ingredients. Choice B, ½ oz of nuts, and choice D, 1 oz of sunflower seeds, do not provide an equivalent amount of oil as requested in the question.
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