HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5
1. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with DM. The nurse understands that the peak time for rapid-acting insulin, such as lispro (Humalog), is:
- A. 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration.
- B. 1 to 2 hours after administration.
- C. 2 to 4 hours after administration.
- D. 3 to 5 hours after administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. Rapid-acting insulins like lispro, such as Humalog, peak quickly within 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. This peak time is crucial to monitor for potential hypoglycemia, which is most likely to occur during this period. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a longer peak time for rapid-acting insulin, which is inaccurate. Choices C and D are also incorrect because they indicate even longer peak times, which do not align with the rapid onset and peak action of lispro insulin.
2. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:
- A. Serum glucose level.
- B. Hair loss.
- C. Bone mineralization.
- D. Menstrual flow.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.
3. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
- A. Tetanic contractions
- B. Neck vein distention
- C. Weight loss
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.
4. Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.
- B. Glipizide may cause a low serum sodium level, so make sure you have your sodium level checked monthly.
- C. You won't need to check your blood glucose level after you start taking glipizide.
- D. Take glipizide after a meal to prevent heartburn.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Glipizide should be taken 30 minutes before meals to maximize its glucose-lowering effect.
5. Which of the following symptoms would be most concerning in a client with diabetes insipidus?
- A. Polydipsia
- B. Polyuria
- C. Nocturia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with diabetes insipidus, excessive thirst (polydipsia) and excessive urination (polyuria) are expected symptoms due to the inability to concentrate urine, leading to dilute urine production. Nocturia, waking up at night to urinate, is also common. However, hypertension is not a typical symptom of diabetes insipidus. The correct answer is D because hypertension may indicate a complication such as dehydration or electrolyte imbalances, which would require further assessment in a client with diabetes insipidus.
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