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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Leadership and Management

1. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in the afternoon may coincide with the peak action of NPH insulin, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. The peak action of NPH insulin typically occurs 4-12 hours after administration, so exercising during this time can further lower blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are better options as they suggest exercising at times that are less likely to overlap with the peak insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.

2. A client with type 1 DM is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. In hypoglycemia, the body releases adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Choice B, polyuria, refers to excessive urination and is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia. Choice C, flushed skin, is not a common symptom of hypoglycemia; instead, pale skin and sweating are more characteristic. Choice D, dry mouth, is not directly associated with hypoglycemia; rather, it can be a symptom of hyperglycemia or dehydration.

3. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which 'related-to' phrase should the nurse add?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures.' In chronic hyperparathyroidism, bone demineralization occurs due to the excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium resorption from bones. This process weakens the bones, making the client prone to pathologic fractures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the increased risk of injury associated with chronic hyperparathyroidism. Exhaustion, edema, dry skin, and tetany are not the primary risks for injury in this client population.

4. Which of the following describes the role of the nurse in advocating for a patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Nurses advocate for patients by ensuring that they receive the necessary care and by protecting their rights. This involves speaking up for patients, ensuring they are treated with respect, and helping them access appropriate healthcare services. Option A, providing information for informed decision-making, is an important aspect of nursing care but not the central role of advocacy. Option B, communicating patients' needs to the healthcare team, is essential but more focused on teamwork and collaboration. Option D, helping patients navigate the healthcare system and access resources, is valuable but not the primary definition of advocacy in nursing.

5. Which advice is most beneficial for a new nurse manager?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most helpful advice for a new nurse manager is to understand that it can take up to 6 months to feel comfortable in a new position. This allows the individual to manage their expectations and give themselves time to adapt to their new role. Choice A may be overwhelming and could cause conflicting priorities for the new nurse manager. Choice C, while valuable, might not be the immediate focus for someone new to the role. Choice D, although important, may not be as time-sensitive as the adjustment period in the new position.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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