Free HESI Fundamentals of Nursing practice for HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam (HESI RN). Answer 66 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and
When suctioning a tracheostomy, which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When suctioning a tracheostomy, it is crucial to use sterile technique to prevent infections. Turning off the suction as the catheter is introduced is important to avoid trauma and injury to the tracheal walls. This technique helps maintain the integrity of the tracheostomy site and ensures proper care for the patient.
During a clinic visit, the mother of a 7-year-old reports to the nurse that her child is often awake until midnight playing and is then very difficult to awaken in the morning for school. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain in response to the mother's report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In response to the mother's report, the nurse should assess the family's home environment first to identify any factors that may hinder the establishment of bedtime routines conducive to sleep. Factors such as noise, light, distractions, or other environmental aspects could be contributing to the child's difficulty falling asleep at a reasonable hour and waking up in the morning.
The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.
When caring for an older incontinent client at risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for an older incontinent client at risk for infection is to maintain standard precautions. Standard precautions, which include proper handwashing, are essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission in vulnerable clients. Initiating contact isolation measures may not be necessary for all clients, and inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided unless medically necessary to prevent additional risks of infection. Instructing the client in the use of adult diapers is not an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection.
A client has a nursing diagnosis of 'Spiritual distress related to a loss of hope, secondary to impending death.' What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is experiencing spiritual distress due to a loss of hope related to impending death, it is crucial for the nurse to assist and support the client in establishing short-term goals. This approach helps the client maintain hope and a sense of purpose, as achieving immediate goals can provide a sense of accomplishment and meaning. While acceptance of the final stage of life is important, helping the client set short-term goals is a more immediate and effective intervention in addressing spiritual distress. Encouraging the client to make future plans, especially if they are unrealistic, may not be beneficial as it could lead to further distress if those plans are unattainable. Instructing the client's family to focus on positive aspects of the client's life, though supportive, does not directly address the client's spiritual distress and loss of hope.
The healthcare provider is providing passive range of motion (ROM) exercises to the hip and knee for a client who is unconscious. After supporting the client's knee with one hand, what action should the healthcare provider take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When providing passive ROM exercises to the hip and knee for an unconscious client, it is essential to support the joints of the knee and ankle. The next action should be to cradle the client's heel and gently move the limb in a slow, smooth, firm, but gentle manner. This helps maintain joint mobility and prevent contractures.
A client is 2 days post-op from thoracic surgery and is complaining of incisional pain. The client last received pain medication 2 hours ago. He is rating his pain as a 5 on a 1-10 scale. After calling the provider, what is the nurse's next action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, since no additional pain medication is available, the nurse should recommend non-pharmacological pain management techniques. Guided imagery and slow rhythmic breathing can help the client manage incisional pain effectively. These techniques can provide distraction and relaxation, potentially reducing the perception of pain without the need for additional medication.
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cloudy peritoneal effluent (B) is a sign of infection and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. It indicates the presence of peritonitis, a severe complication that requires prompt intervention. Weight gain (A) may indicate fluid overload but is not as urgent as a potential infection. Elevated blood pressure (C) is a common finding in clients with kidney disease and needs monitoring but does not require immediate reporting. Clear and pale yellow effluent (D) is a normal finding and does not raise immediate concerns.
A client has a nursing diagnosis of 'spiritual distress.' What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is going through spiritual distress, employing reflective listening techniques is crucial. This method allows the client to voice their concerns and emotions, providing them with a supportive environment to explore their feelings. Options A and B do not directly address the client's spiritual distress and may undermine the client's feelings. While option C involves a chaplain, using reflective listening directly involves the nurse in addressing and supporting the client's spiritual concerns.
Prior to Mr. Landon undergoing a tracheostomy, what is the top nursing priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before Mr. Landon undergoes a tracheostomy, the top nursing priority is to establish a means of communication. This is essential to ensure that Mr. Landon can effectively communicate his needs during and after the procedure. Shaving the neck (Choice A) may be necessary for the tracheostomy but is not the top priority. Inserting a Foley catheter (Choice C) and starting an IV (Choice D) are important nursing interventions but are not the priority before a tracheostomy procedure, where communication is key for patient safety and comfort.
When caring for an immobile client, what nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for an immobile client, the nursing diagnosis with the highest priority is impaired gas exchange. This is because impaired gas exchange implies difficulty with breathing, which is essential for sustaining life. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for all bodily functions, and any impairment in gas exchange can lead to serious complications, making it the priority nursing diagnosis to address in an immobile client. Choices A, C, and D are important considerations as well when caring for an immobile client, but they are secondary to impaired gas exchange. Risk for fluid volume deficit may occur due to immobility, but ensuring proper gas exchange takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate survival. Risk for impaired skin integrity is a concern in immobile clients but does not pose an immediate threat to life like impaired gas exchange. Altered tissue perfusion is also critical but is usually a consequence of impaired gas exchange, reinforcing the priority of addressing gas exchange first.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume excess. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Restricting dietary sodium intake (D) is the most critical intervention for a client with fluid volume excess to prevent further fluid retention. Encouraging increased fluid intake (A) would exacerbate the issue by adding more fluid to the body. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (B) is more relevant for respiratory issues than fluid volume excess. While measuring intake and output (C) is important for assessing fluid balance, restricting sodium intake is the priority as it helps manage fluid levels more effectively by reducing fluid retention.
Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.
The healthcare provider assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the healthcare provider do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the appropriate next step for the healthcare provider is to check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole. These issues can commonly cause a slowed IV rate. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may not address the underlying problem of kinked tubing or incorrect IV pole height. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle (Choice C) is important for securement but is not the priority in this situation. Flushing with normal saline and recounting the drop rate (Choice D) should only be done after ruling out mechanical issues like kinks in the tubing.
The patient had a CVA and developed right-sided hemiplegia. Which action is least appropriate for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Suctioning the patient in a supine position and pulling the bed sheets tightly across their feet can lead to foot drop, which is harmful for a patient with right-sided hemiplegia. This action can exacerbate muscle weakness and impair circulation in the affected limb. It is crucial to avoid actions that may compromise the patient's safety and well-being, such as causing foot drop in this scenario.
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct position for administering a soap suds enema is the Sims' position, not the left lateral position. The Sims' position allows the enema solution to follow the anatomical course of the intestines and provides the best overall results. By repositioning the client in the Sims' position, the weight is distributed to the anterior ilium, facilitating the enema administration process.
When preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter, the nurse applies sterile gloves and then tests the catheter balloon for patency. What action should the nurse implement next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After testing the catheter balloon for patency, the nurse should proceed to apply a sterile lubricant to the end of the catheter. This lubrication helps facilitate the insertion of the catheter smoothly. Placing a sterile drape under the client's buttocks should have been done prior to this step. Discarding the gloves and applying new sterile gloves is not necessary at this point in the procedure. Instructing the client to inhale and exhale slowly is not part of the immediate steps for inserting an indwelling urinary catheter.
A client is admitted to the hospital with intractable pain. What instruction should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is preparing to assist this client with a bed bath?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) preparing to assist a client with intractable pain is to take measures to promote as much comfort as possible. Intractable pain is resistant to relief, so ensuring comfort during all activities, including a bed bath, is crucial to enhance the client's well-being and quality of care.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Avoiding activities that increase the risk of falls (B) is the most crucial instruction for a client with osteoporosis to prevent fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more susceptible to fractures from falls. While increasing calcium intake (A) is important for bone health, avoiding falls takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight (C) is not directly related to osteoporosis management. Increasing vitamin D supplements (D) is beneficial for bone health, but fall prevention is more critical in this scenario.
When assessing a client with a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, the nurse notes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When the nurse observes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched, it is a classic sign of fluid volume deficit. This finding indicates dehydration and the need to restore the client's fluid volume. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse is to continue the planned nursing interventions aimed at addressing the fluid deficit. Choice A is incorrect as jugular vein distention is associated with fluid overload, not deficit. Choice B is incorrect as offering high-protein snacks does not directly address the fluid volume deficit. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to address the fluid deficit before addressing skin integrity issues.
The charge nurse observes that a demographic screen has been left open on a hallway computer by a nurse who is responding to a call light while the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is involved in a personal phone call. Which action should the charge nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The charge nurse's first action should be to close the demographic screen on the computer to protect patient confidentiality and prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information. This immediate response addresses the breach of patient privacy and ensures that patient data is secure, setting the right priority in managing the situation.
When a health care provider diagnoses metastatic cancer and recommends a gastrostomy for an older female client in stable condition, the son tells the nurse that his mother must not be told the reason for the surgery because she 'can't handle' the cancer diagnosis. Which legal principle is the court most likely to uphold regarding this client's right to informed consent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario described, it is crucial for health care providers to obtain informed consent from the client before proceeding with any medical intervention. If informed consent is withheld and the treatment is carried out without the client's agreement, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence, specifically assault and battery. This legal principle emphasizes the importance of respecting a client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Despite the son's wishes to withhold information from his mother, the client must be informed of the proposed treatment and given the opportunity to consent or refuse based on complete information provided by the healthcare team.
The healthcare provider is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should the healthcare provider include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Engaging in moderate exercise for 30 minutes daily is a crucial lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. Regular physical activity helps lower blood pressure, improve cardiovascular health, and overall well-being. It is recommended to engage in activities like brisk walking, cycling, or swimming to achieve these benefits. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting sodium intake, avoiding a diet high in saturated fats, and reducing alcohol consumption are also important lifestyle modifications for hypertension management, but engaging in moderate exercise is the most appropriate initial instruction for this client.
The client is being taught how to self-administer a subcutaneous injection. To ensure sterility of the procedure, which subject is most important for the instructor to include in the teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To maintain the sterility of the procedure, it is crucial to teach the client the correct technique for drawing medication from a vial. This ensures that the medication remains sterile during preparation and administration. While hand washing, injection site selection, and equipment disposal are important aspects of injection safety, the key focus should be on maintaining the sterility of the medication itself to prevent infections and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment.
At a motor vehicle collision site, a nurse applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely until emergency personnel arrive. Subsequently, the client undergoes leg amputation and sues the nurse for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Good Samaritan Act shields healthcare professionals who act in good faith and offer reasonable care from malpractice claims, irrespective of the client's outcome. In this scenario, the nurse stopping to render aid at the accident scene and applying pressure to the bleeding groin wound would likely be covered by the Good Samaritan Act, protecting the nurse from legal repercussions related to the subsequent leg amputation.
A client who has been on bed rest for several days is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Applying antiembolism stockings as prescribed (B) is an effective intervention to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client on bed rest. While encouraging ambulation (A), elevating the legs (C), and performing passive range-of-motion exercises (D) are also beneficial, compression stockings are particularly effective in reducing the risk of DVT by promoting venous return and reducing stasis in the lower extremities.
The client reports still being unable to sleep a week after learning progressive muscle relaxation techniques. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should first assess the client's adherence to the original instructions. By asking the client to describe the routine, the nurse can evaluate if the technique is being correctly implemented before considering further interventions. This choice is correct as it focuses on assessing the client's current practice. Option A is incorrect as adding regular exercise may not address the issue with the relaxation technique. Option B is incorrect as determining if the client has been keeping a sleep diary does not directly address the efficacy of the relaxation technique. Option C is incorrect as blindly encouraging the client to continue may not be the best approach without understanding how the technique is being practiced.
The client is being taught how to perform active range of motion (ROM) exercises. To exercise the hinge joints, which action should the client be instructed to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hinge joints, like the elbow, primarily allow movement in one direction, in this case, bending the arm. The correct action to exercise hinge joints is to bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus. This movement specifically targets the hinge joint and promotes its range of motion. Choices A, C, and D involve movements that do not specifically target hinge joints. Tilt the pelvis involves the ball-and-socket joints of the hip, turning the head involves the pivot joint of the neck, and extending the arm and rotating it in circles involve multiple joints including ball-and-socket and pivot joints.
While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The wife is correctly performing the passive range-of-motion exercises by holding the arm above and below the elbow. The nurse should acknowledge this correct technique (A). It is essential to keep the joint uncovered (B) during exercises, while ensuring the rest of the body remains covered for warmth and privacy. Choices (C) and (D) do not provide optimal support to the joint for effective movement.
When taking a client's blood pressure, the healthcare professional is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. What is the best action for the healthcare professional to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when unable to distinguish the point of the first sound during blood pressure measurement is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. This allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring a more accurate reading the second time. It is important to ensure that the cuff is fully deflated and the appropriate wait time is given to obtain an accurate blood pressure measurement.
A client with a diagnosis of renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (C) is elevated and concerning in a client with renal failure receiving hemodialysis, as it can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring blood pressure (A), weight gain (B), and weight loss (D) are essential in clients on hemodialysis, but an elevated potassium level poses an immediate risk that requires prompt intervention.
While suctioning a tracheostomy tube, the client starts to cough. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client coughs during tracheostomy tube suctioning, the nurse should gently withdraw the suction tubing. This action allows the client to cough out mucus naturally, reducing the risk of further irritation and promoting effective airway clearance. Choice A is incorrect because suctioning deeper can cause trauma and increase the risk of complications. Choice C is incorrect as removing the suction quickly may not allow the client to clear the mucus adequately. Choice D is incorrect as inserting and removing the suction multiple times can lead to unnecessary trauma and discomfort for the client.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of heart failure. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Limiting sodium intake to 2 grams per day (B) is a crucial dietary instruction for clients with heart failure. It helps manage fluid retention and reduces the workload on the heart. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid retention, worsening heart failure symptoms. Increasing fluid intake (A) can further exacerbate fluid overload in heart failure patients. Avoiding foods high in potassium (C) is not necessary unless the client has hyperkalemia; in heart failure, potassium restriction is not a primary dietary concern. Increasing protein intake (D) is not the priority for heart failure management; focusing on sodium restriction is more beneficial.
During the suctioning of a tracheostomy tube, if the catheter appears to attach to the tracheal walls and creates a pulling sensation, what is the best action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When the catheter of the suctioning device attaches to the tracheal walls, causing a pulling sensation, the nurse should release the suction by opening the vent. This action will alleviate the pulling sensation and prevent trauma to the delicate tracheal walls. Continuing suctioning or applying more pressure can lead to tissue damage and should be avoided. Suctioning deeper can increase the risk of injuring the patient's airway.
The healthcare professional is obtaining a lie-sit-stand blood pressure reading on a client. Which action is most important for the healthcare professional to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In obtaining a lie-sit-stand blood pressure reading, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to stay with the client while the client is standing. This action is the most important as it ensures client safety during the procedure. Recording findings, keeping the blood pressure cuff on the same arm, and monitoring pulse rate are all important tasks, but staying with the client while standing takes priority to prevent any potential falls or adverse events. By staying with the client, the healthcare professional can promptly address any signs of dizziness or instability, ensuring a safe environment for the client throughout the procedure.
The client, who is newly diagnosed with arteriosclerosis and is obese, is being educated by the nurse on reducing the risk of a heart attack or stroke. Which health promotion brochure should the nurse provide to this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most significant risk factor contributing to arteriosclerosis is excess dietary fat, particularly saturated fat and cholesterol. Therefore, the most crucial brochure for the nurse to provide to the client focuses on decreasing cholesterol levels through diet to help reduce the risk of heart attack or stroke.
The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Limiting saturated fat from animal food sources to no more than 4 ounces per week is an important diet modification for lowering cholesterol. To be effective in reducing cholesterol, the client should exercise 30 minutes per day, or at least 4 to 6 times per week. Red meat and all proteins do not need to be eliminated to lower cholesterol, but should be restricted to lean cuts of red meat and smaller portions. The low density lipoproteins need to decrease rather than increase.
Ten minutes after signing an operative permit for a fractured hip, an older client states, 'The aliens will be coming to get me soon!' and falls asleep. Which action should the nurse implement next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should assess the client's neurologic status next. The client's statement about aliens and subsequent falling asleep could be indicative of a potential neurological issue such as confusion or altered mental status. It is essential to assess the client's neurological status to determine the underlying cause of the client's statement and behavior. This assessment will help the nurse identify any potential cognitive impairment or neurological deficits that may need immediate attention, ensuring the client's safety and well-being. Notifying the surgeon or involving the client's family can be considered later, but the priority is to assess the client's neurologic status to address any immediate concerns.
What action should the nurse implement to prepare a client for the potential side effects of a newly prescribed medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before initiating a new medication, the nurse should conduct a thorough assessment of the client to identify any pre-existing health conditions or risk factors that could be affected by the medication. This assessment helps in establishing a baseline for monitoring potential side effects and determining the medication's appropriateness for the client. Choice B is incorrect as teaching the client how to administer the medication does not directly address preparing for potential side effects. Choice C is incorrect because administering a half dose without a proper assessment could be unsafe. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging fluid intake is not directly related to preparing for potential side effects of a medication.
The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An increased respiratory rate can be a sign of various issues postoperatively, including pain. Assessing and managing pain is crucial as it can lead to tachypnea. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can all contribute to an increased respiratory rate. Therefore, determining if pain is causing the tachypnea is the most important intervention to address the underlying cause. Encouraging ambulation, offering snacks, or forcing fluids are not the priority in this situation as pain assessment takes precedence in managing the increased respiratory rate.
When faced with caring for a close friend in a professional setting, which action should the staff member take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When faced with caring for a close friend in a professional setting, the staff member should first explain the relationship to the charge nurse and ask for reassignment. This is important to maintain professional boundaries, prevent conflicts of interest, and ensure that the care provided is unbiased and without compromising the friend's confidentiality. Choice A is incorrect because the priority should be on professional boundaries rather than informing the friend about confidentiality. Choice C is not appropriate as it puts the burden on the client to address any discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as accepting the assignment without addressing the potential conflict of interest could lead to compromised care.
After surgery, a client who had a colostomy says 'I know the doctor did not really do a colostomy'. The nurse understands that the client is in an early stage of adjustment to the diagnosis or surgery. What nursing action is indicated at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acknowledging the client's feelings with empathy is essential in the early stage of adjustment to a colostomy surgery. By saying 'It must be difficult to have this kind of surgery,' the nurse validates the client's emotions and opens up a channel for further communication. Choice A is incorrect because agreeing with the client's denial is not therapeutic and may hinder acceptance. Choice C is inappropriate as it disregards the client's emotional state and autonomy. Choice D involves the surgeon and is not the nurse's role in addressing the client's emotional needs.
Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for an adult client with hypernatremia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In hypernatremia, there is an excess of sodium in the blood. Reviewing food labels for sodium content is crucial as it helps the client identify and avoid high-sodium foods, which can contribute to elevated sodium levels. Monitoring urine output volume may be important for other conditions but is not directly related to managing hypernatremia. Drinking water whenever thirsty is generally good advice for staying hydrated but does not specifically address the issue of high sodium levels. Using salt tablets would worsen hypernatremia by further increasing sodium intake.
The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ensuring that the client signs the consent form (A) is the most crucial action before surgery. The consent form is legally and ethically necessary for the procedure to proceed. While reviewing allergies (B), confirming identity (C), and verifying the surgical site (D) are essential steps, obtaining the client's informed consent takes precedence to protect the client's rights and ensure a safe surgical experience.
A policy requiring the removal of acrylic nails by all nursing personnel was implemented 6 months ago. Which assessment measure best determines if the intended outcome of the policy is being achieved?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Healthcare-associated infection rate. Acrylic nails can harbor bacteria, increasing the risk of healthcare-associated infections. By implementing a policy to remove acrylic nails, the goal is to reduce the infection rate. Monitoring the healthcare-associated infection rate will provide a direct measure of the policy's effectiveness in achieving its intended outcome. This measure is more specific and directly related to the objective of reducing the risk of infections compared to the other choices.
A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client reports a change in bowel habits, the first step for the nurse is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern by reviewing the medical records. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's baseline, which is crucial before initiating any interventions. By determining the client's usual bowel habits, the nurse can identify deviations from the norm and make informed decisions on the appropriate course of action. Assessing the client's medical record is a critical first step in addressing the client's bowel concerns. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they jump to interventions without first establishing the client's normal bowel pattern. Offering warm prune juice, requesting a large-volume enema, or increasing fluids may not be appropriate until the nurse knows the client's regular bowel habits and can assess the situation effectively.
The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.
The nurse is completing a client's preoperative routine and finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should inform the surgeon immediately that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of the situation so they can address the client's concerns, explain the procedure, and obtain the necessary signed permit before proceeding with the surgery. This ensures informed consent and compliance with preoperative protocols.
After informing an older client that an IV line needs to be inserted, the client becomes very apprehensive, loudly expressing a dislike for all healthcare providers and nurses. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, the nurse should respond by calmly reassuring the client that the discomfort from the IV insertion will be temporary. By providing reassurance and addressing the client's concerns, the nurse can help reduce the client's apprehension and create a more supportive environment for the procedure.
When making the bed of a client who needs a bed cradle, which action should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A bed cradle is used to keep the top bedclothes off the client, so the nurse should drape the top sheet and covers loosely over the cradle. This helps in maintaining the proper positioning and function of the bed cradle to ensure the client's comfort and safety during bed making.
An adult has a coagulation time of 20 minutes. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A coagulation time of 20 minutes is prolonged, suggesting a potential bleeding disorder. Ecchymotic areas, which are areas of bruising, are common signs of abnormal bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should observe the client for ecchymotic areas to monitor for potential bleeding issues. Blood clots are not typically associated with prolonged coagulation time but rather with excessive clotting. Jaundice is related to liver dysfunction, and infection is not directly linked to coagulation time.
Mr. Landon is scheduled to undergo a tracheostomy. Which nursing action is essential during tracheal suctioning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning is crucial to prevent hypoxia, which can occur during tracheal suctioning. Hypoxia can lead to serious complications, making the provision of oxygen essential in maintaining adequate oxygenation levels for the patient undergoing tracheal suctioning. Choice A is incorrect because using a water-soluble lubricant is not directly related to the essential nursing action during tracheal suctioning. Choice C is incorrect as ensuring that the suction catheter is open during insertion is a basic requirement and not the essential action for oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect because assisting the client to assume a semi-Fowler's position is beneficial for comfort and airway alignment but is not as crucial as administering oxygen to prevent hypoxia.
A community hospital is opening a mental health services department. Which document should the nurse use to develop the unit's nursing guidelines?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice are essential guidelines for nursing practice in various specialties, including mental health. The document outlines the expectations and responsibilities of nurses in providing high-quality care within their specific practice areas. In the context of opening a mental health services department, using the Scope and Standards specific to psychiatric-mental health nursing would ensure that the unit's nursing guidelines align with best practices and professional standards in mental health care. Choices A, B, and D are not focused on providing specific guidelines for nursing practice in a mental health services department, making them incorrect options.
The healthcare provider plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula (1 mL x 4 mg) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. The healthcare provider should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam for a dosage of 4 mg IV push. Choice A is incorrect because it results from an incorrect calculation. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided dosage.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the client's respiratory function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor respiratory function in a client with pneumonia. ABGs provide valuable information on oxygenation status, acid-base balance, and how well the lungs are exchanging gases. This information helps in assessing the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation, guiding treatment decisions, and evaluating the overall respiratory status of the client.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the client's glycemic control?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Evaluating hemoglobin A1c levels is the most appropriate intervention to assess glycemic control in a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Hemoglobin A1c levels reflect the average blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months, providing valuable information for monitoring and managing diabetes. Monitoring fasting blood glucose levels (Choice A) is important for daily management but does not provide a long-term view like hemoglobin A1c. Checking urine for ketones (Choice B) is more relevant for assessing diabetic ketoacidosis. Assessing dietary intake (Choice D) is crucial for overall diabetes management but does not directly assess glycemic control.
The client is reviewing the signed operative consent with a nurse, who is admitted for the removal of a lipoma on the left leg. The client states that the consent form should say the removal of a lipoma on the right leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should inform the surgeon about the client's concern immediately. This is important to ensure that the correct procedure is performed on the intended leg. Communication with the surgeon is crucial to address any discrepancies in the consent form and prevent errors during the surgical procedure. Having the surgeon clarify and correct the consent form is essential to maintain patient safety and uphold the principles of informed consent.
The healthcare professional retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer to the client? (Enter the numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the mL to administer, divide the ordered dose (3 mg) by the concentration (4 mg/mL). 3 mg ÷ 4 mg/mL = 0.75 mL. Rounding to the nearest tenth, the correct dose to administer is 0.8 mL.
A male client with unstable angina needs a cardiac catheterization. The healthcare provider explains the risks and benefits of the procedure and then leaves to set up for the procedure. When the nurse presents the consent form for signature, the client hesitates and asks how the wires will keep his heart going. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should ask the healthcare provider to return and provide further explanation to the client. The healthcare provider is the one who can address the risks and benefits of the procedure in detail, ensuring the client receives accurate information before providing consent.
While observing an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) providing a total bed bath for a confused and lethargic client, the nurse notes the UAP soaking the client's foot in a basin of warm water placed on the bed. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to remind the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to dry between the client's toes completely. Failing to dry between the toes can lead to skin breakdown due to excessive moisture accumulation. Proper drying is essential to maintain skin integrity and prevent complications in the client's care. Removing the basin of water immediately may disrupt the care process and not address the root cause of the issue. Advising about potential skin damage is not as direct and actionable as reminding to dry between the toes. Adding skin cream to the water may not be appropriate without specific orders and can potentially worsen the situation by increasing moisture.
During the admission assessment of a terminally ill male client, he states that he is an agnostic. What is the best nursing action in response to this statement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Documenting the client's statement in the spiritual assessment is the best nursing action in response to his disclosure of being an agnostic. This respects the client's beliefs and preferences, ensuring that care is tailored to his individual needs. It also demonstrates a commitment to providing holistic and patient-centered care. Providing information about the chapel's hours and location (choice A) may not align with the client's beliefs as an agnostic. Inviting the client to a healing service (choice C) assumes the client's interest in such activities, which may not be the case. Offering to contact a spiritual advisor (choice D) may not be necessary if the client did not express a desire for it.
A client in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease is very anxious and frequently asks about her deceased parents. Which intervention should the nurse implement to reduce the client's anxiety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Engaging the client in an activity to distract her from thinking about her deceased parents is the most appropriate intervention to reduce anxiety. This approach helps shift the focus away from distressing thoughts and can provide comfort and a sense of calm to the client.
A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help him sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Teaching coping strategies is an appropriate first intervention for a client experiencing sleep difficulties and stress. It can help manage stress and improve sleep without immediately resorting to medication. By teaching coping strategies, the nurse empowers the client to address the underlying issues contributing to his sleep problems rather than just providing a temporary solution. Referring for a sleep study and neurological follow-up may be considered later if the client's sleep issues persist despite implementing coping strategies. Determining the client's sleep and activity pattern may be helpful but addressing coping strategies is more beneficial in managing stress-related sleep issues. Obtaining a prescription for the client to take when stressed does not address the root cause of the sleep problem and may lead to dependency on medication rather than promoting long-term solutions.
The healthcare professional is monitoring a client receiving IV potassium chloride. Which assessment finding should prompt the healthcare professional to immediately stop the infusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An irregular heart rate is a critical sign of hyperkalemia, a serious condition that can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Stopping the infusion promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. The healthcare professional should inform the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because pain at the IV site is common and may not necessitate stopping the infusion. Choice C is incorrect as swelling at the IV site may indicate a local reaction but is not a reason to stop the infusion. Choice D is incorrect as an elevated blood pressure alone is not a direct indication to stop the infusion of IV potassium chloride.
UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedbound with a foley catheter and enteral tube feeds. Which change from the client warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Purulent drainage indicates infection at the insertion site, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications.
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