Nursing Elites

1. An older adult client with a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough. The client is anxious and complaining of a dry mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assist the client to an upright position
• B. Administer a prescribed sedative
• C. Apply a high-flow Venturi mask
• D. Encourage the client to drink water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to an upright position is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. An upright position helps optimize lung expansion and aids in improving ventilation, which can alleviate shortness of breath. This position also assists in reducing anxiety by providing a sense of control and comfort. Administering a sedative (Choice B) may further depress the respiratory drive in a client with COPD and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary. Applying a high-flow Venturi mask (Choice C) may be indicated later based on oxygenation needs, but the immediate focus should be on positioning. Encouraging the client to drink water (Choice D) may not directly address the respiratory distress and anxiety experienced by the client.

2. A client tells the clinic nurse about experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that the client had sexual intercourse four days ago with a person who was casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion
• B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture
• C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation
• D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining a urethral drainage specimen for culture is crucial in diagnosing a potential sexually transmitted infection (STI) in this client. While assessing for perineal symptoms like itching, erythema, and excoriation (Choice C) may provide additional information, obtaining a culture is more definitive. Observing for a chancroid-like lesion (Choice A) is not as pertinent as obtaining a culture for a broader diagnostic approach. Identifying all sexual partners in the last four days (Choice D) is important for contact tracing but obtaining a specimen for culture takes priority in this scenario.

3. The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should notify the physician of which of the following findings?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow is an indication of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate medical attention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal finding indicating proper dialysis function and should not raise concern. Decreased urine output may be expected in a client undergoing dialysis due to the removal of excess fluids from the body. Increased blood pressure is a common complication in clients with kidney disease but is not directly related to cloudy dialysate outflow.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) 50 mg to a patient who has a blood pressure of 160/95 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Administer the medication as ordered.
• B. Encourage the patient to drink more fluids.
• C. Hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine.
• D. Request an order for serum electrolytes and administer the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine. Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are contraindicated in renal failure. In this case, the patient has oliguria, which is a reduced urine output, indicating potential renal insufficiency. Before administering the diuretic, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's renal function through serum BUN and creatinine levels. Encouraging the patient to drink more fluids (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of renal function. Administering the medication as ordered (Choice A) without assessing renal function can be harmful. Requesting serum electrolytes and administering the medication (Choice D) overlooks the need for a specific evaluation of renal function in this scenario.

5. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) weighing 50kg and having a potassium level of 6.7mEq/L (6.7mmol/L) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Calcium acetate, one tablet by mouth
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, 15 grams by mouth
• C. Epoetin Alfa, recombinant, 2,500 units subcutaneously
• D. Sevelamer, one tablet by mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level swiftly. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a medication used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, reducing the overall potassium levels. Calcium acetate, epoetin alfa, and sevelamer are not indicated for the immediate reduction of potassium levels in hyperkalemia. Calcium acetate is used to control phosphate levels, epoetin alfa is a medication to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, and sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in chronic kidney disease to reduce phosphate levels.

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