HESI RN
Leadership and Management HESI
1. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Serum sodium level
- C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
- D. Serum osmolarity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum osmolarity is the most important laboratory test for confirming hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis. Elevated serum osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration in the blood, which is a hallmark of HHNS. Serum potassium level (Choice A) is important in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis rather than HHNS. Serum sodium level (Choice B) may be affected in HHNS but is not the primary test for confirming the disorder. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values (Choice C) are more useful in assessing acid-base status, which is not the primary concern in HHNS.
2. To be effective, a nurse manager needs both managerial and leadership skills. Interpersonal activities have many concerns that overlap both leaders and managers. However, some interpersonal activities are needed by nurse managers, but are not specific duties of leaders. Which of the following is an interpersonal activity of nurse managers, but not necessarily all nurse leaders?
- A. Coaching
- B. Resource allocation
- C. Planning for the future
- D. Monitoring
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Resource allocation is an interpersonal activity specific to nurse managers because it involves managing the distribution of resources within the healthcare environment, which is not necessarily a duty for all leaders. While coaching, planning for the future, and monitoring are important skills for both leaders and managers, resource allocation is a task that is more specific to the managerial role of nurse managers.
3. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:
- A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality.
- B. Provide time for privacy.
- C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other.
- D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a postoperative male client with diabetes mellitus who reports impotence and concerns about its impact on his marriage is to suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. Impotence can have significant emotional and relational effects, and a sex counselor is specifically trained to address such concerns. Encouraging the client to ask questions about personal sexuality (Choice A) may not provide the specialized support needed in this situation. Providing time for privacy (Choice B) is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. Providing support for the spouse or significant other (Choice C) is valuable but may not be as effective as seeking professional help to address the client's specific issue of impotence.
4. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?
- A. Widened T wave
- B. Prominent U wave
- C. Prolonged QT interval
- D. Shortened ST segment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In hypocalcemia, a decreased level of calcium can lead to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG due to its role in myocardial repolarization. A widened T wave (Choice A) is typically seen in hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave (Choice B) is associated with hypokalemia. A shortened ST segment (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypocalcemia.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.
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