HESI RN
HESI Community Health
1. The wife of an older adult man who has had diabetes mellitus for the past 10 years reports to the home health nurse that her husband fell yesterday while taking his daily walk in the neighborhood. He has a bruised hand and a small abrasion on his left knee. The nurse assesses that his neurologic vital signs are stable. To reduce the risk for future falls, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. current blood sugar level
- B. degree of paresthesia in feet
- C. wound healing of knee abrasion
- D. A1c glycosylated hemoglobin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing for paresthesia (numbness or tingling) in the feet is crucial in this scenario as it can help determine if the client has a loss of sensation, which increases the risk of falls. Paresthesia is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to decreased sensation and proprioception in the feet, contributing to balance issues and an increased risk of falls. Monitoring for paresthesia allows the nurse to assess the extent of sensory impairment and implement appropriate interventions to prevent future falls. While monitoring blood sugar levels (choice A) and A1c levels (choice D) are important in managing diabetes, in this case, assessing paresthesia takes precedence due to its direct impact on fall risk. Similarly, while monitoring the wound healing of the knee abrasion (choice C) is important for overall wound care, it is not directly related to reducing the risk of future falls in this situation.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
- B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Client reports seeing halos around lights.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Seeing halos around lights is a symptom of digoxin toxicity, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. This visual disturbance is a serious adverse effect of digoxin and indicates potential toxicity. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention related to digoxin administration.
3. The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 before administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer the dose as prescribed.
- B. Hold the medication.
- C. Call the healthcare provider.
- D. Repeat the vital signs in 30 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil slows sinoatrial nodal automaticity and delays atrioventricular nodal conduction, which helps in slowing the ventricular rate. The heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are within an acceptable range for administering verapamil in a client with atrial flutter. Holding the medication, calling the healthcare provider, or repeating the vital signs in 30 minutes are not necessary based on the vital signs obtained and the action of verapamil in this scenario.
4. While screening all children in the third grade for head lice, the school nurse observes that one girl has a brownish thickening on her neck. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
- A. review the child's medical folder for a list of allergies
- B. instruct the child's parents to begin treatment
- C. advise the child's parents to obtain a medical evaluation of the child
- D. none of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to advise the child's parents to obtain a medical evaluation of the child. This is important because a medical professional needs to properly diagnose and treat the brownish thickening observed on the child's neck. Reviewing the child's medical folder for allergies (Choice A) is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the specific concern. Instructing the child's parents to begin treatment (Choice B) without a proper diagnosis can be harmful and ineffective. Choosing 'none of the above' (Choice D) is not the best option when a potential health issue is identified; seeking a medical evaluation is the most appropriate course of action.
5. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
- B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
- C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
- D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.
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