hesi 799 rn exit exam quizlet HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An apical pulse of 58 beats per minute is concerning when administering digoxin because digoxin can further lower the heart rate, leading to bradycardia or heart block. Immediate intervention is required to prevent potential complications. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention in this context. The presence of a new murmur may indicate valvular issues but does not directly relate to the administration of digoxin. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute is also within normal limits and is not a priority concern when administering digoxin.

2. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with septic shock, a heart rate of 120 beats per minute is a critical clinical finding that requires immediate intervention. A rapid heart rate can indicate worsening sepsis and inadequate tissue perfusion. Correcting the underlying cause of the tachycardia and stabilizing the heart rate is crucial in managing septic shock. The other options, while important, do not represent an immediate threat to the patient's condition. A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg may be expected in septic shock, a temperature of 100.4°F is mildly elevated, and a urine output of 30 ml/hour, though decreased, may not be an immediate concern in the context of septic shock.

4. The nurse is triaging several children as they present to the emergency room after an accident. Which child requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Projectile vomiting in a child with a headache could indicate increased intracranial pressure, requiring immediate attention. Choices B, C, and D do not present with symptoms indicating potentially life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention.

5. The nurse is assessing the thorax and lungs of a client who is experiencing respiratory difficulty. Which finding is most indicative of respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle suggest that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe, which is a clear sign of respiratory distress. This finding indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, typically seen in conditions like asthma, COPD, or respiratory failure. Choices B, C, and D are not the most indicative of respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min falls within the normal range. Downward movement of the diaphragm with inspiration is a normal finding indicating effective diaphragmatic breathing. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95% is within the normal range and does not necessarily indicate respiratory distress.

Similar Questions

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