HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC).
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. International normalized ratio (INR).
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.
2. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin therapy. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypotension.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Hyperglycemia.
- D. Hypercalcemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertension. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to an increase in blood pressure, making hypertension a common side effect that the nurse should closely monitor. Hypotension (choice A) is not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to erythropoietin therapy in clients with chronic renal failure, making them incorrect choices.
3. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:
- A. Administer epinephrine.
- B. Inform the physician.
- C. Administer oxygen.
- D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.
4. After three days of persistent epigastric pain, a female client presents to the clinic. She has been taking oral antacids without relief. Her vital signs are heart rate 122 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation 96%, and blood pressure 116/70. The nurse obtains a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which assessment finding is most critical?
- A. Irregular pulse rhythm
- B. Bile-colored emesis
- C. ST elevation in three leads
- D. Complaint of radiating jaw pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: ST elevation in three leads is a critical finding that suggests myocardial infarction, requiring immediate attention. This finding indicates ischemia or injury to the heart muscle. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in this scenario. Irregular pulse rhythm may be concerning but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction. Bile-colored emesis and complaint of radiating jaw pain are relevant but not as indicative of a myocardial infarction as ST elevation in three leads.
5. Which of the following lab values would be most concerning in a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Elevated hemoglobin levels.
- B. Low platelet count.
- C. High potassium levels.
- D. Low sodium levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low platelet count is most concerning in patients receiving heparin therapy due to the risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Heparin can sometimes cause a drop in platelet count, leading to a potentially serious condition where blood does not clot as it should. This can result in excessive bleeding or clot formation in blood vessels. Elevated hemoglobin levels, high potassium levels, and low sodium levels are not typically associated with heparin therapy and are less likely to cause immediate concerns or complications in this context.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99