Free HESI Nutrition practice for Nutrition HESI Practice Exam (HESI RN). Answer 46 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress trackin
A nurse is reviewing a client's admission laboratory findings that indicate the client has hyponatremia. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect to be below the expected reference range?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Chloride. Chloride levels are typically low in cases of hyponatremia, as it often accompanies sodium loss. Magnesium (choice A) is not directly related to hyponatremia. Calcium (choice B) and Potassium (choice D) levels are usually not significantly affected by hyponatremia, making them less likely to be below the expected reference range in this scenario.
Although non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen (Motrin) are beneficial in managing arthritis pain, the nurse should caution clients about which of the following common side effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Occult bleeding. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen are known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including occult bleeding. Occult bleeding refers to bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract that may not be visible in the stool, leading to potential complications like anemia. Urinary incontinence (choice A) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Constipation (choice B) is also not a typical side effect associated with NSAIDs. Nystagmus (choice C) is an involuntary eye movement and is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Therefore, the nurse should caution clients about the risk of occult bleeding when using NSAIDs for arthritis pain management.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Crohn's Disease and is experiencing frequent cramping and diarrhea. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Increasing caloric intake by eating foods high in protein can help Crohn's Disease patients maintain their weight and manage symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because fresh fruits and vegetables may exacerbate symptoms due to their high fiber content. Choice C is incorrect as high-fat foods can be difficult to digest and may worsen symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because whole milk can be problematic for individuals with Crohn's Disease due to its high fat content.
A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokalemia in combination with this medication:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia increases the risk of dysrhythmias when taking digoxin, making potassium intake crucial. Digoxin toxicity is more likely in patients with low potassium levels, leading to an increased risk of dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia in combination with digoxin is primarily associated with dysrhythmias rather than oliguria, irritability, anxiety, or alteration of consciousness.
A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute may indicate respiratory distress in a client with chest pain. In a client with a history of coronary artery disease presenting with chest pain, signs of respiratory distress can be an alarming finding. Blood pressure within the normal range (130/80 mm Hg), heart rate of 72 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are generally considered within normal limits and may not be as concerning in this context.
A nurse is assisting an adolescent client in the selection of complementary protein sources on the lunch menu. The client is a vegetarian who eats milk products but does not like beans. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Peanut butter and enriched bread provide complementary proteins, which are important for a vegetarian diet. Peanut butter is a good source of protein and when paired with enriched bread, it forms a complete protein source. Choice B, baked potato with sour cream, lacks complete protein. Choice C, bagel with cream cheese, also does not provide a complete protein source. Choice D, fruit salad and carrot sticks, do not contain sufficient protein to serve as a main protein source for a vegetarian diet.
The parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin) have received discharge instructions from the nurse. Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Proper oral hygiene, including brushing and flossing carefully after every meal, is essential for children on phenytoin to prevent gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect. Choice A is incorrect because acne is not a common side effect of phenytoin and does not require immediate healthcare provider notification. Choice C is incorrect because vomiting or fever should not prompt skipping a dose without consulting the healthcare provider first. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin should never be done abruptly or without healthcare provider guidance, even if the child is seizure-free for 6 months.
The nurse is caring for a child immediately after surgical correction of a ventricular septal defect. Which of the following nursing assessments should be a priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Postoperative arrhythmias are a common and potentially serious complication after cardiac surgery, making them a priority to monitor. Assessing for postoperative arrhythmias takes precedence over other assessments like checking nail beds for color and refill, auscultating for pulmonary congestion, or monitoring peripheral pulses as arrhythmias can have immediate and severe implications for the child's health.
A client has an indwelling catheter with continuous bladder irrigation after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) 12 hours ago. Which finding at this time should be reported to the health care provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with an indwelling catheter and continuous bladder irrigation post TURP, minimal drainage into the urinary collection bag should be reported to the health care provider. This finding could indicate a blockage in the catheter or a complication that requires immediate attention. Light pink urine (choice A) is expected due to bladder irrigation. Occasional suprapubic cramping (choice B) is common post-TURP. Complaints of the feeling of pulling on the urinary catheter (choice D) may indicate discomfort but do not suggest an urgent issue like a potential blockage.
Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
A 14-year-old with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which statement by the client would be most indicative of the etiology of this crisis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because a recent illness, such as a cold, can trigger a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease. This crisis is often precipitated by infections or other illnesses that cause a systemic inflammatory response, leading to vaso-occlusion. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the etiology of a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, making them incorrect.
A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy. What medication should the nurse have available in the event of an overdose of heparin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Protamine is the antidote for heparin overdose. It works by neutralizing the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Amicar (Choice B) is used to treat excessive bleeding due to elevated fibrinolytic activity and is not the antidote for heparin overdose. Imferon (Choice C) is an iron supplement and is not indicated for heparin overdose. Diltiazem (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension and angina, not for heparin overdose. Therefore, the correct choice is Protamine (Choice A).
A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a group of older adults about sources of complete and incomplete protein. Which of the following foods should the nurse include as a complete protein?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Yogurt contains all essential amino acids, making it a complete protein. Choice B, fresh vegetables, are incomplete proteins. Choice C, nuts, are also incomplete proteins. Choice D, dried beans, are incomplete proteins. Therefore, the correct answer is yogurt because it is a source of complete protein.
The healthcare provider should recognize which of the following as an indication of dehydration in an elderly client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Dry mucous membranes are a classic sign of dehydration, especially in elderly individuals. Dehydration can lead to decreased moisture in the mucous membranes, making them dry. Skin turgor, although commonly assessed for dehydration in younger individuals, may be less reliable in the elderly due to changes in skin elasticity. Elevated temperature is more indicative of an infection or other conditions. Increased pulse pressure is not typically associated with dehydration in the elderly.
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.
A nurse is reinforcing nutrition teaching with a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend to increase calcium in the client's diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 1 cup of kale. Kale is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice to increase calcium intake for individuals with osteoporosis. While fruits like apples (choice A) are nutritious, they are not high in calcium. Lean beef (choice B) is a good source of protein but not a significant source of calcium. Cream cheese (choice C) is also not a primary source of calcium compared to kale.
A client is being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide (Lasix). Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A rapid weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours suggests significant fluid loss, which is concerning in clients on diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output (choice A) is an expected effect of diuretic therapy. Decreased appetite (choice B) is a common side effect but not as concerning as rapid weight loss. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg (choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most concerning finding in a client being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide.
The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops urticaria half an hour after the transfusion has begun. What is the first action the nurse should take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario of a client developing urticaria during a blood transfusion, the immediate priority for the nurse is to stop the infusion. This action is crucial to prevent further administration of the allergen causing the reaction. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the allergic response effectively. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to prevent worsening of the reaction. Administering Benadryl (Choice D) should be considered after stopping the infusion, following the healthcare provider's orders, and assessing the client's condition.
A client is receiving treatment for hypertension. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute is within normal limits; however, changes in breathing patterns can indicate respiratory distress, which is concerning, especially in a client receiving treatment for hypertension. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute may not be alarming if the client is at rest. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range for a healthy adult. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is also considered normal, showing no immediate cause for concern in this scenario.
Which statement best describes the effects of immobility in children?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Immobility in children indeed has physical effects similar to those found in adults. However, it can also significantly impact their development and growth. Choice A is incorrect because immobility does not solely prevent language and fine motor development but affects various aspects. Choice C is incorrect as susceptibility to the effects of immobility may vary between children and adults depending on individual factors. Choice D is incorrect as not all children are likely to have prolonged immobility with subsequent complications.
To prevent unnecessary hypoxia during suctioning of a tracheostomy, what must the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent unnecessary hypoxia during suctioning of a tracheostomy, the nurse must apply suction for no more than 10 seconds. Prolonged suctioning can lead to hypoxia by removing too much oxygen from the patient. Maintaining a sterile technique (choice B) is important to prevent infection but does not directly relate to preventing hypoxia. Lubricating the catheter tip (choice C) helps with the insertion process but does not specifically address hypoxia prevention. Withdrawing the catheter in a circular motion (choice D) is not a standard practice during tracheostomy suctioning and does not contribute to preventing hypoxia.
For a client with chronic kidney disease having a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL, which intervention should the nurse perform first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering erythropoietin is the priority intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease and a low hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, helping to manage anemia in these clients. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation level, and assessing for signs of fatigue are important aspects of care but addressing the anemia by administering erythropoietin takes precedence to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall well-being.
After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A meal of turkey, sweet potato, green beans, milk, and an orange is low in sodium and suitable for a post-MI diet. Choice A includes a baked potato and canned beets, which are higher in sodium. Choice B includes canned salmon, which can be high in sodium. Choice C includes a bologna sandwich, which is also high in sodium compared to the other options.
The nurse is discussing with a group of students the disease Kawasaki. What statement made by a student about Kawasaki disease is incorrect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys and children younger than age 5, but there is no specific predisposition to children of Hispanic descent. Choice A is accurate, as Kawasaki disease does affect mucous membranes, skin, and lymph nodes. Choice B is correct, as peeling of the skin on the hands and feet with joint and abdominal pain are findings in the second phase of the disease. Choice D is accurate since initially, there is a sudden high fever that lasts 1 to 2 weeks.
The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN). Findings include moderate edema and oliguria. Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are elevated. What dietary modifications are most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Decreased sodium and potassium.' In acute glomerulonephritis, managing edema and oliguria is crucial. Reducing sodium and potassium intake helps achieve this by decreasing fluid retention and workload on the kidneys. Choice A, 'Decreased carbohydrates and fat,' is not directly related to managing AGN. Choice C, 'Increased potassium and protein,' is incorrect as increasing potassium can be harmful in kidney conditions. Choice D, 'Increased sodium and fluids,' is also incorrect as it can exacerbate edema and hypertension in AGN.
The client is being taught to select foods rich in potassium to help prevent digitalis toxicity. Which choice indicates the client understands dietary needs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A baked potato is high in potassium and helps prevent digitalis toxicity by maintaining adequate potassium levels. While choices A, B, and C all contain some potassium, a baked potato is a more concentrated source of potassium compared to three apricots, a medium banana, or a naval orange. Therefore, the client should choose a baked potato to better meet the dietary needs for preventing digitalis toxicity.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about food choice with the mother of an 8-month-old infant. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because peanut butter and egg whites are not recommended for infants under 12 months due to the risk of choking and allergies. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate food choices for an 8-month-old infant. Rice cereal, crackers, pureed liver, strained pears, applesauce, and green peas are all suitable options for introducing solid foods to infants.
A nurse checks a client who is on a volume-cycled ventilator. Which finding indicates that the client may need suctioning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Restlessness is often a sign of respiratory distress or secretion build-up, indicating the need for suctioning. While drowsiness (choice A) can be a sign of hypoxia, it is not as immediate an indication for suctioning as restlessness. Complaint of nausea (choice B) and a pulse rate of 92 (choice C) are not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client on a volume-cycled ventilator.
Which bed position is preferred for use with a client in an extended care facility on a falls risk prevention protocol?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Placing the bed in the lowest position, ensuring wheels are locked, and positioning it against the wall is the preferred bed position for a client in an extended care facility on a falls risk prevention protocol. This setup helps minimize the risk of falls by providing a stable and secure environment. Choices A, B, and C do not address key factors such as having the bed in the lowest position and placing it against the wall, which are crucial in preventing falls in such a setting.
A client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery is transitioning from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse should remind the client that which of the following items is included in a full liquid diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, chocolate pudding. A full liquid diet consists of smooth, creamy foods like pudding. Creamed peas (choice A) are not typically allowed on a full liquid diet as they may contain solid pieces. Cottage cheese (choice B) and applesauce (choice D) are also not part of a full liquid diet as they are not in liquid form.
A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the mother of a 9-month-old infant regarding appropriate dietary choices. Which of the following observations by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Infants should not consume more than 24 ounces of milk a day as it can lead to iron deficiency anemia and other issues. Choices A and B demonstrate appropriate dietary choices for a 9-month-old, as they involve providing the infant with family foods and appropriate finger foods. Choice D is also appropriate as it shows the infant is transitioning to drinking from a cup.
A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.
During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. In this scenario, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds is a positive finding as it indicates air entry into both lungs. Mist in the T-piece is expected in clients with an endotracheal tube, and the inability to speak is common due to the tube's placement.
A client who has chronic lymphocytic leukemia is starting chemotherapy treatments and asks if she needs to make any dietary changes. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Using sugar-free gum can help alleviate the metallic taste often experienced during chemotherapy treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking fluids at mealtime may worsen early satiety, foods higher in fat can exacerbate nausea, and raw fruits and vegetables may be harder for the body to digest and may pose a risk of infection for individuals with compromised immune systems.
When caring for a client with a post right thoracotomy who has undergone an upper lobectomy, the nurse focuses on pain management to promote
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Effective pain management encourages deep breathing and coughing, which are crucial for preventing complications after thoracic surgery. These actions help prevent respiratory complications such as pneumonia and atelectasis, promote lung expansion, and improve oxygenation. While relaxation and sleep are important for recovery, the priority after a thoracotomy and lobectomy is to prevent respiratory issues. Incisional healing is important but not the primary focus immediately post-surgery. Range of motion exercises are not directly related to promoting recovery after thoracic surgery.
A client is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is most appropriate for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D: Contact.' Contact precautions are necessary for clients with MRSA pneumonia to prevent the spread of the resistant bacteria. MRSA is primarily spread by direct contact, so using contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, is essential. Choice A, 'Reverse,' is not a type of isolation precaution. Choice B, 'Airborne,' is not the appropriate isolation for MRSA pneumonia, as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route. Choice C, 'Standard precautions,' are important for all clients, but for MRSA pneumonia specifically, contact precautions are more targeted and necessary.
What is the most effective nursing intervention to prevent atelectasis from developing in a postoperative client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough. This intervention helps to expand the lungs and prevent atelectasis in postoperative clients. Maintaining adequate hydration is important for overall health but is not the most effective intervention for preventing atelectasis. Ambulating the client within 12 hours is beneficial for preventing complications after surgery, but it may not be as directly effective in preventing atelectasis as turning, deep breathing, and coughing. Splinting the incision is important for postoperative care, but it does not specifically address the prevention of atelectasis.
A nurse is contributing to the plan of care of a client who has had a stroke. The client is experiencing severe dysphagia with choking and coughing while eating. Which of the following nutritional therapies should the nurse expect to include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Mechanical soft diet. A mechanical soft diet is appropriate for clients with severe dysphagia as it helps reduce the risk of choking and aspiration by providing food that is easier to swallow. Choice A, NPO until dysphagia subsides, may be necessary initially but is not a long-term solution. Choice B, supplements via NG tube, may be considered if the client is unable to meet their nutritional needs orally, but it does not address the texture modification needed for dysphagia. Choice C, initiation of total parenteral nutrition, is typically reserved for clients who cannot tolerate any oral intake and is not the first-line option for dysphagia management.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about reliable sources of Vitamin B12 with a client who is pregnant. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Skim milk is a reliable source of Vitamin B12, which is essential for the health of both the mother and the developing fetus. While figs, broccoli, and stewed tomatoes are nutritious foods, they are not significant sources of Vitamin B12. Figs are a good source of fiber and other vitamins, broccoli is rich in Vitamin C and K, and stewed tomatoes are high in Vitamin C and antioxidants, but they do not contain Vitamin B12 as much as skim milk does.
After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate meal plan for a client following a myocardial infarction and placed on a sodium-restricted diet should include fresh ingredients with low sodium content to promote heart health. Option D, which consists of 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange, aligns best with these requirements. Option A contains canned beets, which are typically high in sodium. Option B includes canned salmon, which may have added sodium. Option C has a bologna sandwich, which is processed and high in sodium. Therefore, Option D is the most suitable choice for a client needing a low-sodium diet after a heart attack.
The nurse is caring for a client post appendectomy. The client has developed a fever, and the incision site is red and swollen. Which of these assessments is a priority for the nurse to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inspecting the incision site is a priority in this situation because the redness and swelling indicate a potential infection. This assessment helps the nurse determine the extent of infection and the appropriate intervention, such as administering antibiotics or notifying the healthcare provider. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) may be important but is not the priority in this scenario where signs of infection are present. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice B) is also important but addressing the infection takes precedence. Monitoring the client's respiratory status (Choice D) is essential but not the priority when dealing with a localized infection at the incision site.
A nurse is caring for a new mother who is breastfeeding her term newborn. The newborn weighed 3.4 kg (7.5 lb) at birth and weighs 3.3 kg (7.3 lb) on the second day of life. The mother expresses concern about the weight loss and asks the nurse about the amount of her breast milk. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A healthy newborn can lose up to 6% of their birth weight within the first few days of life, which is considered normal. This weight loss is usually due to fluid shifts and initial adjustments. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inappropriate as switching to formula is not necessary at this point. Choice B, while acknowledging the mother's concerns, does not provide factual information about newborn weight loss. Choice D is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary stress to the mother and newborn since monitoring weight loss at home is sufficient unless there are other concerns.
A client has a chest tube in place following a left lower lobectomy inserted after a stab wound to the chest. When repositioning the client, the nurse notices 200 cc of dark, red fluid flows into the collection chamber of the chest drain. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to continue to monitor the rate of drainage. Clamping the chest tube is not recommended as it can lead to a tension pneumothorax. Calling the surgeon immediately may not be necessary at this point unless the drainage rate significantly increases or other concerning symptoms develop. Preparing for a blood transfusion is premature without further assessment and monitoring of the client's condition. Monitoring the rate of drainage allows the nurse to assess for any potential complications and ensure that the drainage amount is within expected limits.
A client who is to have antineoplastic chemotherapy tells the nurses of a fear of being sick all the time and wishes to try acupuncture. Which of these beliefs stated by the client would be incorrect about acupuncture?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The belief stated in option C is incorrect about acupuncture. Acupuncture is based on the concept of qi flowing through major pathways in the body, known as meridians, rather than nerve clusters. This traditional Chinese medicine practice aims to balance the flow of qi to promote health and healing. Options A, B, and D are consistent with the principles of acupuncture and are not incorrect beliefs. Option A describes the depth and duration of needle placement, option B explains the role of imbalances in qi flow causing illness, and option D outlines how acupuncture helps rebalance energy flow for the body's natural healing mechanisms.
A nurse is assisting with the development of an education program for a community group about intake of vitamins and minerals in the diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as the best source of vitamin C?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 1 medium orange. Oranges are well-known for being rich in vitamin C, an essential nutrient for immune function and skin health. While choices A, C, and D also contain some vitamin C, the medium orange provides a higher amount of this vitamin compared to a ½ cup of green pepper, ½ cup of cabbage, or a medium tomato.
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