hesi medical surgical practice exam quizlet HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

2. A client who has undergone abdominal surgery calls the nurse and reports that she just felt 'something give way' in the abdominal incision. The nurse checks the incision and notes the presence of wound dehiscence. The nurse immediately:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of wound dehiscence indicates a separation of the layers of the surgical incision. The immediate priority for the nurse is to cover the abdominal wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution. This helps to protect the wound from contamination and promotes a moist environment conducive to healing. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but the initial action should be to address the wound. Documenting the findings (Choice B) is necessary but not the immediate priority. Placing the client in a supine position with the legs flat (Choice C) is not indicated in this situation as wound dehiscence requires wound care intervention.

3. An 81-year-old male client has emphysema. He lives at home with his cat and manages self-care with no difficulty. When making a home visit, the nurse notices that his tongue is somewhat cracked, and his eyeballs are sunken into his head. What nursing intervention is indicated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention in this scenario is to assist the client in finding ways to increase his fluid intake. Clients with COPD, including emphysema, should aim to consume at least three liters of fluids per day to help keep their mucus thin. As the disease progresses, these clients may decrease fluid intake due to various reasons. Suggesting creative methods, such as having disposable fruit juices readily available, can help the client meet this goal. Option B is incorrect as seeing an ear, nose, and throat specialist is not directly related to the client's symptoms. Option C is not the priority in this case, as the main concern is addressing the client's dehydration. Option D does not address the immediate need for managing the client's dehydration and is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.

4. A client is placed on a mechanical ventilator following a cerebral hemorrhage, and vecuronium bromide (Norcuron) 0.04 mg/kg q12 hours IV is prescribed. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client on a mechanical ventilator receiving vecuronium bromide is 'Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.' Vecuronium is a skeletal muscle relaxant that causes diaphragmatic paralysis, leading to the inability of the client to communicate effectively. This is a crucial nursing concern as it impacts the client's ability to express needs and participate in care. Option B 'High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure' is not the priority in this scenario as the client's condition is related to the effects of the medication and mechanical ventilation, not directly to increased intracranial pressure. Option C 'Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion' is important but not the priority over impaired communication. Option D 'Social isolation related to inability to communicate' is not the priority nursing diagnosis in this situation as it focuses more on psychosocial aspects rather than the immediate physiological concern of communication impairment.

5. Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client's symptoms suggest digitalis toxicity, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Digitalis toxicity can present with symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia (low pulse rate). Given the client's presentation, it is crucial to assess for digitalis use as elderly individuals are more susceptible to this type of intoxication. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to consider during the assessment, but in this scenario, the priority lies in identifying and addressing the potential digitalis toxicity due to the severity of symptoms and the need for prompt intervention.

Similar Questions

Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?
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A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?
What discharge instruction is most important for a client after a kidney transplant?
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