hesi medical surgical practice quiz HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz - Nursing Elites
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz

1. A client with nephrotic syndrome is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by glomerular damage, leading to proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), hypoalbuminemia (low levels of albumin in the blood), and lipiduria (lipids in the urine). These manifestations are key indicators of nephrotic syndrome. Edema, often severe, is also common due to decreased plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia. The correct answer is 'All of the above' because all three manifestations are associated with nephrotic syndrome. Dehydration is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome as it is more commonly associated with fluid retention and edema. Dysuria is a symptom of cystitis, not nephrotic syndrome. CVA tenderness is more indicative of inflammatory changes in the kidney rather than nephrotic syndrome.

2. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of dry mouth, constipation, and inability to void are indicative of anticholinergic side effects, which can be caused by medications like propantheline (Pro-Banthine) commonly used to treat incontinence. The first question the nurse should ask is about the client's medications to determine if they are taking anticholinergic drugs. This information is crucial as it can help differentiate between a simple side effect or a potential overdose. Asking about water intake (Choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority in this situation. Questioning about laxatives or enemas (Choice C) and past occurrences (Choice D) are not as pertinent initially as identifying the client's current medication status.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies of a client with suspected hepatitis. Which increased parameter is interpreted as the most specific indicator of this disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum bilirubin is the most specific indicator of hepatitis as it reflects liver dysfunction. Hemoglobin, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are not specific to hepatitis. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, BUN evaluates kidney function, and ESR is a nonspecific marker of inflammation or infection.

4. The patient is receiving sulfadiazine. The healthcare provider knows that this patient’s daily fluid intake should be at least which amount?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sulfadiazine may lead to crystalluria, a condition where crystals form in the urine. Adequate fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by ensuring urine is dilute enough to prevent crystal formation. The recommended daily fluid intake for a patient receiving sulfadiazine is at least 2000 mL/day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide a sufficient amount of fluid intake to prevent crystalluria in patients on sulfadiazine.

5. A client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s dietary teaching? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones, it is essential to limit the intake of foods high in animal protein to prevent the formation of stones. Additionally, reducing sodium intake is crucial as high sodium levels can contribute to stone formation. Therefore, choices A and B are correct. Choice D, which suggests reducing intake of milk and other dairy products, is not specifically recommended for calcium phosphate stones. Clients with calcium phosphate stones should focus on limiting animal protein, sodium, and calcium intake. Choices A and B address these dietary modifications, making them the correct options for this client. Choices D, which is not directly related to calcium phosphate stones, is incorrect.

Similar Questions

A client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s dietary teaching? (Select all that apply.)
The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A client with histoplasmosis has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.30, PCO2 58 mm Hg, PO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 27 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?
The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient who has severe gastroenteritis. The patient’s electrolytes reveal a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The nurse receives an order for intravenous 5% dextrose and normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride to infuse at 125 mL per hour. Which action is necessary prior to administering this fluid?
A client has a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action should the nurse take?
ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 50,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access @ $69.99

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 50,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access @ $149.99