Free HESI Nutrition practice for HESI Nutrition Exam (HESI RN). Answer 47 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on Nurs
The client is receiving discharge teaching for heart failure. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice D is the correct answer because stopping medications when feeling better can be harmful in heart failure. It is essential to complete the full course of medication as prescribed by the healthcare provider to effectively manage heart failure. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate good understanding and compliance with heart failure management strategies, such as monitoring weight, restricting sodium intake, and adhering to prescribed medications, respectively.
When a client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer, which of the following should take priority in planning care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Leukopenia should take priority in planning care for a client receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for bronchial cancer because it is a serious side effect that increases the risk of infection. Monitoring leukopenia is crucial to prevent complications. Esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but leukopenia poses a higher risk of life-threatening infections, requiring immediate attention.
Discharge instructions for a client taking alprazolam (Xanax) should include which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Alprazolam should not be stopped abruptly as it can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares; gradual tapering is necessary. Choice A is incorrect as sedative hypnotics are not primarily used as analgesics. Choice C is incorrect as caffeine can decrease the effects of sedative hypnotics rather than increase them. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to avoid excessive exercise or high temperature related to alprazolam use.
A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 350 mg/dL. Which of these actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering insulin as ordered is the priority action when a client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 350 mg/dL. Insulin helps to lower the high blood glucose level and prevent complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. Encouraging the client to drink fluids may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to lower the blood glucose level. Notifying the healthcare provider and rechecking the blood glucose level can be important steps but should come after administering insulin to address the high glucose level promptly.
After surgery, a client has been taken off the ventilator and has a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. Which nursing measure will provide the most comfort to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Performing frequent oral care with a tooth sponge is the most appropriate nursing measure in this situation. It helps maintain oral hygiene, prevent dryness, and provide comfort for a client with an NG tube. Allowing the client to melt ice chips may not be suitable immediately post-surgery due to potential risks. Providing mints or swabbing the mouth with glycerin swabs may not address the need for proper oral care and hygiene, which is essential for a client with an NG tube.
A client with a head injury is being monitored for increased intracranial pressure. Which of these findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Pupils that are equal and reactive to light are a crucial neurological assessment finding. Changes in pupil size and reactivity can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and are not indicative of increased intracranial pressure. A heart rate of 72 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, and a client reporting a headache are common findings and may not necessitate immediate intervention in this context.
When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.
A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.
A client with hypertension taking a potassium-wasting diuretic is being educated about nutrition by a nurse. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Consume organs and bananas.' When a client is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic, they are at risk of potassium loss. Consuming foods high in potassium, such as organs and bananas, can help counteract this loss. Choice A is incorrect because tuna and salmon are not particularly high in potassium. Choice B is incorrect because dried fruits are good sources of potassium. Choice C is incorrect as cow's milk is also a good source of potassium, which could be beneficial for a client taking a potassium-wasting diuretic.
Which information is a priority for the client to reinforce after intravenous pyelography?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After intravenous pyelography, monitoring urine output is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any early signs of complications. Decreased urine output could indicate a problem with kidney function or potential complications from the procedure. While rest and hydration are important, the priority lies in monitoring urine output for any abnormalities. Eating a light diet may be recommended, but it is not the priority post-procedure instruction.
A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the parents of a newborn about feeding skills. Which of the following is not an infant's feeding skill?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. When discussing infant feeding skills, it is important to note that eating foods higher in fat is not considered a specific feeding skill for newborns. The typical progression of feeding skills includes pushing solid objects from the mouth, eating pieces of soft, cooked food, drinking from a cup held by another person, and experimenting with a spoon. Choices A, C, and D correspond to the expected developmental sequence of feeding skills for infants, making them incorrect answers in this context.
The nurse is planning care for a client with a CVA. Which of the following measures planned by the nurse would be most effective in preventing skin breakdown?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Repositioning every two hours is the most effective measure in preventing skin breakdown for a client with a CVA. This practice helps to relieve pressure on the skin, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Placing the client in a wheelchair for extended periods (Choice A) can increase pressure on specific areas, leading to skin breakdown. Padding bony prominences (Choice B) can provide some protection but may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Massaging reddened bony prominences (Choice D) can potentially worsen the condition by causing further damage to already compromised skin.
The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively after a femoral popliteal bypass. The upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood. The nurse's first action should be to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario where the upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood post-femoral popliteal bypass, the nurse's first action should be to apply pressure at the bleeding site. Applying pressure is essential to control hemorrhage and prevent further blood loss. Choice A is incorrect as wrapping the leg with elastic bandages would not address the immediate issue of controlling the bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because reinforcing the dressing and elevating the leg should come after controlling the bleeding. Choice D is incorrect as removing the dressings and re-dressing the incision should only be done after the bleeding is under control to prevent excessive blood loss.
A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert, but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action. This position can help stimulate voiding due to gravity and normal positioning. Having the client drink water (Choice A) may help, but assisting him to stand is more effective. Crede maneuver (Choice B) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of bladder trauma. Waiting for 2 hours (Choice D) without taking any action is not proactive in addressing the client's inability to void.
A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with anticoagulants. Which of these findings is most concerning to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because pain and swelling in the calf can indicate a new or worsening DVT, requiring immediate attention. Bruising on the arms and legs may be a common side effect of anticoagulants but is not as concerning as a potential DVT. Severe headache may indicate other conditions like a migraine or hypertension and is not directly related to DVT. Increased urination is not typically associated with DVT and may point towards other health issues like diabetes or urinary tract infections.
A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with altered renal function, monitoring fluid balance is crucial. Weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the visits as it reflects cumulative changes in the body's fluid status. Changes in intake and output (Choice A) can provide valuable information, but weekly weight is a more direct measure of overall fluid retention or loss. Changes in mucous membranes (Choice B) and skin turgor (Choice C) can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less reliable indicators in this context.
A client with gastroesophageal reflux is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Drinking coffee throughout the day can aggravate gastroesophageal reflux symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements that can help manage gastroesophageal reflux by avoiding late-night eating, not consuming trigger foods like chocolate, and using milk for relief when experiencing heartburn.
When assessing constipation in elders, which action should be the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to obtain a health and dietary history when assessing constipation in elders. This action is crucial as it helps the nurse identify potential causes and contributing factors to constipation in elderly clients. Obtaining a complete blood count (choice A) may be necessary at some point, but it is not the priority in this situation. Referring to a provider for a physical examination (choice C) and measuring height and weight (choice D) are important but are not the priority actions when assessing constipation.
The nurse is about to assess a 6-month-old child with nonorganic failure-to-thrive (NOFTT). Upon entering the room, the nurse would expect the baby to be
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive often appears pale, thin, and uninterested in their surroundings. Choice A is incorrect as 'irritable and colicky with no attempts to pull to standing' is more indicative of other conditions like colic. Choice B is incorrect as a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive is unlikely to be alert, laughing, and playing, as they would typically present with signs of failure to thrive. Choice C is incorrect as dusky skin color and poor skin turgor are not typical findings in a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a low-sodium diet. The client's family has requested to bring in some of the client's favorite foods. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend the family members to omit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Pickled beets. Pickled foods often contain high levels of sodium, which should be avoided in a low-sodium diet. Boiled rice, Italian bread, and broiled salmon filet are generally lower in sodium compared to pickled beets, making them more suitable choices for a client on a low-sodium diet.
A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.
The nurse is caring for a client with liver cirrhosis. Which of these findings would indicate that the client is experiencing complications of the disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clay-colored stools and dark urine are classic signs of liver dysfunction, indicating bile flow obstruction commonly seen in liver cirrhosis. This finding is a significant complication requiring immediate medical evaluation. Yellowing of the skin and eyes (jaundice) is a common symptom of liver dysfunction but is not specific to complications. Spider angiomas and ascites with peripheral edema are also associated with liver cirrhosis, but they are not indicative of immediate complications as clay-colored stools and dark urine are.
When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an enteral feeding via an established NG tube. Which option is not part of the sequence the healthcare professional should follow to initiate the feeding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct sequence for initiating enteral feeding includes verifying tube placement to ensure safety, checking the residual feeding contents to prevent complications, and then administering the feeding. Limiting protein intake is not a step in the sequence for initiating enteral feeding. Protein intake may be adjusted based on the patient's specific nutritional needs, but it is not a part of the immediate sequence for initiating the feeding. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are essential steps to ensure the safe and effective administration of enteral feeding.
A client is being discharged with a prescription for chlorpromazine (Thorazine). Before leaving for home, which of these findings should the nurse teach the client to report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: "Sore throat and fever." These symptoms can indicate a serious side effect of chlorpromazine and should be reported immediately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with adverse effects of chlorpromazine. Changes in libido and breast enlargement are not commonly linked to this medication. Abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea are more likely to be gastrointestinal side effects. Dyspnea and nasal congestion are not commonly reported adverse effects of chlorpromazine.
A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Prompt reporting of peptic ulcers is crucial in managing Zollinger-Ellison syndrome to prevent complications and guide treatment. While choices A, C, and D provide relevant information about the condition and its treatment, the most important aspect in the client's care is the prompt reporting of peptic ulcers. This is because untreated peptic ulcers in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to serious complications such as gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation. Therefore, ensuring timely communication with the healthcare provider is essential for effective management of the condition.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about dietary choices for celiac disease. Which of the following menu choices selected by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because baked chicken and potato chips are gluten-free options suitable for a client with celiac disease. Choice A, a hamburger on a wheat bun, contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Choice C, a bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast, also contains gluten. Choice D, beef and barley soup with crackers, includes gluten from the barley and crackers, making it unsuitable for someone with celiac disease.
A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.
The nurse is caring for a client with clinical depression who is receiving a MAO inhibitor. When providing instructions about precautions with this medication, which action should the nurse stress to the client as important?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to avoid chocolate and cheese. MAO inhibitors can interact with tyramine-rich foods like these, potentially leading to severe hypertension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking frequent naps, taking the medication with milk, and avoiding walking without assistance are not relevant precautions associated with MAO inhibitors.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has constipation about a high-fiber diet. Which of the following foods should be included as sources of fiber? Select one that doesn't apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Peanut butter. While kidney beans, strawberries, and whole wheat bread are high-fiber foods that help alleviate constipation, peanut butter is not a significant source of fiber. Peanut butter is more known for its protein and healthy fats content rather than being a good source of dietary fiber. Therefore, it should not be included as a primary recommendation for a high-fiber diet in the context of addressing constipation.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has COPD. Which of the following instructions by the nurse is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase protein intake. This is appropriate because increasing protein intake can help maintain muscle mass and strength in clients with COPD. Option A, 'Drink carbonated beverages,' is incorrect as carbonated beverages can exacerbate COPD symptoms. Option B, 'Decrease fiber intake,' is also incorrect as fiber is important for digestion and should not be decreased unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider. Option C, 'Use bronchodilators after meals,' is incorrect because bronchodilators are typically used before meals to help open the airways for better breathing, not after meals.
The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important instruction for a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis regarding exercise is to engage in weight-bearing activities. Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis-related fractures. Choice B is incorrect because the primary focus should be on bone health rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding all exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture would limit physical activity, which is essential for overall health. Choice D is incorrect as while strengthening muscles is beneficial, weight-bearing activities directly impact bone health in osteoporosis.
During an excretory urogram, which observation made by the nurse indicates a complication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The observation of the client's entire body turning a bright red color during an excretory urogram indicates a severe reaction to the dye, which is a significant complication. This reaction is likely due to an allergic response and requires immediate medical attention. The other choices do not signify a severe complication: choice A could be a normal taste sensation related to the procedure, choice C may indicate a mild reaction, and choice D could be a common side effect of nausea without indicating a severe complication requiring immediate intervention.
The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In right-sided congestive heart failure, the nurse would anticipate finding jugular vein distention. This occurs due to increased venous pressure, leading to the distention of the jugular veins in the neck. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased urinary output is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; pleural effusion and bibasilar crackles are more commonly seen in conditions like left-sided heart failure.
A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse recommend to the client as an appropriate sweetener?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nonnutritive sugar substitutes are suitable for individuals with diabetes, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, as they do not affect blood glucose levels. Corn syrup and agave nectar contain high levels of sugar that can spike blood glucose levels, making them unsuitable for diabetes management. While natural honey is a natural sweetener, it can still impact blood sugar levels and is not the optimal choice for individuals with diabetes.
A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, a pale foot with the absence of a pulse indicates compromised circulation, which is a critical emergency. The nurse should immediately notify the healthcare provider to address the circulation issue promptly. Reading the question and understanding the urgency is vital. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot in fifteen minutes are not appropriate actions when a child is experiencing compromised circulation.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about foods that enhance iron absorption when consumed with nonheme iron with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Tomato juice. Tomato juice is high in vitamin C, which enhances the absorption of nonheme iron from foods. Vitamin C helps convert nonheme iron to a form that is easier for the body to absorb. Tea (choice B) contains tannins that can inhibit iron absorption. Milk (choice C) contains calcium, which can interfere with iron absorption. Dried beans (choice D) are a good source of nonheme iron but do not enhance iron absorption when consumed with nonheme iron.
A client with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Which of these assessments is the highest priority for the nurse to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Auscultation of breath sounds is the highest priority assessment in a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing. It helps the nurse evaluate the severity of the asthma exacerbation by listening for wheezing, crackles, or decreased breath sounds. This assessment guides treatment decisions, such as administering bronchodilators or oxygen therapy. Measurement of peak expiratory flow, although important in assessing asthma severity, may not be feasible in an emergency situation where immediate intervention is needed. Observation of accessory muscle use and assessment of skin color are also important assessments in asthma exacerbation, but auscultation of breath sounds takes precedence in determining the need for urgent interventions.
A client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago. During the nurse's initial evening rounds, the nurse notices a foul smell in the room. The client makes all of these statements during their conversation. Which statement would alert the nurse to a complication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum suggests a possible abscess or secondary infection, requiring attention. Choice A may indicate pleurisy, but the focus should be on the sputum. Choice C may be non-specific and could be related to the infection or fever. Choice D is non-specific and may be expected during an infection.
The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.
When introducing solid foods to an infant, what food should be recommended to be introduced first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When introducing solid foods to infants, iron-fortified cereal is usually recommended as the first food due to its high nutritional value and the importance of iron for the baby's development. Strained fruits (choice A) are often introduced later due to their higher sugar content. Pureed meats (choice B) and cooked egg whites (choice C) are usually introduced after iron-fortified cereal to provide additional sources of protein and other nutrients.
A client wants to increase her daily intake of omega-3 fatty acids. Which of the following foods should the nurse suggest the client increase?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Soybean oil. Soybean oil is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. Blueberries (choice A), citrus fruits (choice C), and green tea (choice D) are not significant sources of omega-3 fatty acids. Blueberries are rich in antioxidants, citrus fruits provide vitamin C, and green tea contains polyphenols, but they do not offer a substantial amount of omega-3 fatty acids compared to soybean oil.
A newly admitted adult client has a diagnosis of hepatitis A. The charge nurse should reinforce to the staff members that the most significant routine infection control strategy, in addition to hand washing, to be implemented is which of these?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to have gloves on while handling bedpans with feces. Hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, and using gloves during such direct contact with feces is crucial in preventing the transmission of the infection. Choice A is not directly related to infection control for hepatitis A. Choice B is more relevant to preventing droplet transmission rather than fecal-oral transmission. Choice C is important for preventing contact transmission from soiled linens but is not as directly related to the mode of transmission of hepatitis A as using gloves when handling feces.
During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Crohn's disease about foods to include in her diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Grilled chicken breast is a high-protein, low-fiber food that is well-tolerated by clients with Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that often requires a low-fiber diet to reduce irritation to the digestive tract. Vanilla milkshake is high in dairy and sugar content, which may trigger symptoms in some individuals with Crohn's disease. Buttered popcorn and broccoli are high in fiber, which can be difficult for individuals with Crohn's disease to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.
The nurse is providing care for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which of these assessments is a priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the priority assessment is checking the tracheostomy site for signs of infection. This is essential to detect early signs of complications such as infection, which can lead to serious issues. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not as critical as ensuring the tracheostomy site is free from infection. Pain assessment and level of consciousness are also important but secondary to assessing for signs of infection in this scenario.
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