HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Exam
1. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.
2. During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
- B. Mist is visible in the T-Piece
- C. Pulse oximetry of 88%
- D. Client is unable to speak
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. In this scenario, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds is a positive finding as it indicates air entry into both lungs. Mist in the T-piece is expected in clients with an endotracheal tube, and the inability to speak is common due to the tube's placement.
3. The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive care unit. The priority assessment in the first hour of care is
- A. Heart rate
- B. Pedal pulses
- C. Lung sounds
- D. Pupil responses
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing pupil responses is crucial in a client with hypertensive crisis to monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which can indicate potential neurological complications. While heart rate, pedal pulses, and lung sounds are important assessments, they do not take precedence over neurological assessments in this critical situation.
4. A client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery is transitioning from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse should remind the client that which of the following items is included in a full liquid diet?
- A. Creamed peas
- B. Cottage cheese
- C. Chocolate pudding
- D. Applesauce
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, chocolate pudding. A full liquid diet consists of smooth, creamy foods like pudding. Creamed peas (choice A) are not typically allowed on a full liquid diet as they may contain solid pieces. Cottage cheese (choice B) and applesauce (choice D) are also not part of a full liquid diet as they are not in liquid form.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an enteral feeding via an established NG tube. Which option is not part of the sequence the healthcare professional should follow to initiate the feeding?
- A. Verify tube placement
- B. Check the residual feeding contents
- C. Administer the feeding
- D. Limit protein intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for initiating enteral feeding includes verifying tube placement to ensure safety, checking the residual feeding contents to prevent complications, and then administering the feeding. Limiting protein intake is not a step in the sequence for initiating enteral feeding. Protein intake may be adjusted based on the patient's specific nutritional needs, but it is not a part of the immediate sequence for initiating the feeding. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are essential steps to ensure the safe and effective administration of enteral feeding.
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