HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is beginning oxygen therapy asks the nurse why the flow rate cannot be increased to more than 2 L/min. The nurse responds that this would be harmful because it could:
- A. Be drying to nasal passages
- B. Decrease the client’s oxygen-based respiratory drive
- C. Increase the risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages
- D. Decrease the client’s carbon dioxide–based respiratory drive
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increasing the oxygen flow rate beyond 2 L/min for a client with COPD can decrease the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive. In clients with COPD, the natural respiratory drive is based on the level of oxygen instead of carbon dioxide, as seen in healthy individuals. Increasing the oxygen level independently can suppress the drive to breathe, leading to respiratory failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because drying of nasal passages, increased risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages, and decreasing the carbon dioxide-based respiratory drive are not the primary concerns associated with increasing the oxygen flow rate in a client with COPD.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient who will receive 10% calcium gluconate to treat a serum potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. The nurse performs a drug history prior to beginning the infusion. Which drug taken by the patient would cause concern?
- A. Digitalis
- B. Hydrochlorothiazide
- C. Hydrocortisone
- D. Vitamin D
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is administered to treat hyperkalemia by reducing myocardial irritability. When given to a patient taking digitalis, it can lead to digitalis toxicity. Digitalis and calcium gluconate both affect cardiac function, and their concomitant use can potentiate adverse effects. Hydrochlorothiazide, Hydrocortisone, and Vitamin D may impact potassium levels, but they do not interact with calcium gluconate in a way that would cause concern for toxicity.
3. Why is lactated Ringer’s solution given to a patient experiencing vomiting and diarrhea?
- A. To increase interstitial and intracellular hydration
- B. To maintain plasma volume over time
- C. To pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid
- D. To replace water and electrolytes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution commonly used to replace water and electrolytes lost due to conditions like vomiting and diarrhea. It helps to restore fluid balance by replacing the lost volume and electrolytes. Option A is incorrect because hypotonic fluids, not lactated Ringer’s solution, increase interstitial and intracellular hydration. Option B is incorrect as colloidal solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, are used to maintain plasma volume over time. Option C is incorrect as hypertonic solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid.
4. When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, which laboratory values will this patient's nurse monitor closely?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN), serum creatinine, and liver function tests
- B. Complete blood count and electrolytes
- C. Serum calcium and magnesium
- D. Serum glucose and lipids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, such as cefazolin, the nurse should closely monitor laboratory values that indicate renal and hepatic function. This includes checking the Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels to assess kidney function. Additionally, monitoring liver function tests, such as AST, ALT, ALP, LDH, and bilirubin, is essential as cephalosporins can affect liver enzymes. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the parameters that are most pertinent when administering high doses of cephalosporins.
5. A nursing assistant is measuring the blood pressure (BP) of a hypertensive client while a nurse observes. Which action on the part of the assistant would interfere with accurate measurement and prompt the nurse to intervene? Select all that apply.
- A. Measuring the BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes
- B. Having the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level
- C. Using a cuff with a rubber bladder that encircles less than 80% of the limb
- D. Measuring the BP after the client reports that he just drank a cup of coffee
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To ensure accurate blood pressure (BP) measurement, the cuff used should have a rubber bladder that encircles at least 80% of the limb being measured. This ensures proper compression and accurate readings. Choices A and B are correct practices as it is recommended to measure BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes and to have the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level. Choice D is also a correct reason for intervention as the client should not have consumed caffeine or smoked tobacco within 30 minutes before BP measurement, as it can affect the accuracy of the reading.
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