HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. A patient who is being treated for dehydration is receiving 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride at a rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse assuming care for the patient reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes and notes a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L. The patient had a urine output of 250 mL during the last 12-hour shift. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Contact the patient’s provider to discuss increasing the potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L.
- B. Continue the intravenous fluids as ordered and reassess the patient frequently.
- C. Notify the provider and discuss increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour.
- D. Stop the intravenous fluids and notify the provider of the assessment findings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient’s potassium level is within normal limits, but the decreased urine output indicates the patient should not receive additional IV potassium. Increasing potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L is not needed as the level is normal. Stopping the IV fluids is appropriate due to the decreased urine output, which suggests potential fluid overload. The nurse should notify the provider of the assessment findings for further management. Increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour is not recommended without addressing the decreased urine output first.
2. A healthcare professional is monitoring the respiratory status of a client who has just undergone surgery and is wearing a pulse oximeter. Which of the following coexisting problems is cause for the healthcare professional to suspect that the oxygen saturation readings are not entirely accurate?
- A. Infection
- B. Hypertension
- C. Low blood pressure
- D. Loss of cough reflex
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Low blood pressure (hypotension), shock, and the use of peripheral vasoconstricting medications can lead to inaccurate pulse oximetry readings due to impaired peripheral perfusion. Hypertension and infection are not typically associated with inaccurate pulse oximetry readings, while the loss of cough reflex does not directly affect oxygen saturation readings.
3. A confused client with pneumonia is admitted with an indwelling catheter in place. During interdisciplinary rounds the following day, which question should the nurse ask the primary health care provider?
- A. Do you want daily weights on this client?
- B. Will the client be able to return home?
- C. Can we discontinue the indwelling catheter?
- D. Should we get another chest x-ray today?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An indwelling catheter dramatically increases the risks of urinary tract infection and urosepsis. Nursing staff should ensure that catheters are left in place only as long as they are medically needed. The nurse should inquire about removing the catheter. All other questions might be appropriate, but because of client safety, this question takes priority.
4. What action should the nurse take for a female patient experiencing vaginal itching and discharge while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) (Bactrim, Septra) for a urinary tract infection?
- A. Ask the patient if she might be pregnant.
- B. Reassure the patient that this is a normal side effect.
- C. Report a possible superinfection to the provider.
- D. Suspect that the patient is having a hematologic reaction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report a possible superinfection to the healthcare provider. Vaginal itching and discharge can indicate a superinfection, which is a secondary infection that can occur while taking antibiotics. It is essential to notify the provider so that appropriate treatment can be initiated. Asking about pregnancy is not relevant in this context as vaginal itching and discharge are not typical signs of pregnancy. Simply reassuring the patient that these symptoms are normal side effects is inadequate as they may indicate a more serious issue like a superinfection. Suspecting a hematologic reaction is not warranted based on the symptoms described.
5. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?
- A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
- B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
- C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
- D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.
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