HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client who has just undergone bronchoscopy was returned to the nursing unit 1 hour ago. With which assessment finding is the nurse most concerned?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 97%
- B. Equal breath sounds in both lungs
- C. Absence of cough and gag reflexes
- D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The absence of cough and gag reflexes is the most concerning finding for the nurse because it indicates a lack of protective airway reflexes, putting the client at risk of aspiration. Oxygen saturation of 97% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Equal breath sounds in both lungs are a positive finding, indicating no significant abnormalities. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min is also within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Therefore, the absence of cough and gag reflexes poses the highest risk to the client's airway safety.
2. After an endotracheal tube is placed in a client who experienced sudden onset of respiratory distress, what should the nurse do?
- A. Secure the tube in place with tape
- B. Order a chest x-ray for the client
- C. Document the depth of tube insertion
- D. Auscultate both lungs for breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After endotracheal tube insertion, the nurse should auscultate both lungs for the presence of breath sounds. This step helps confirm proper tube placement and adequate ventilation. Auscultation of breath sounds is crucial to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the trachea and not in the esophagus. While securing the tube with tape is important, it is not the immediate priority after insertion. Ordering a chest x-ray may be necessary but is not the first action to take immediately post-intubation. Documenting the depth of tube insertion is important but ensuring proper ventilation through auscultation takes precedence.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving isotonic intravenous (IV) fluids at an infusion rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse performs an assessment and notes a heart rate of 102 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 160/85 mm Hg, and crackles auscultated in both lungs. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
- B. Increase the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
- C. Request an order for a colloidal IV solution.
- D. Request an order for a hypertonic IV solution.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient is showing signs of fluid volume excess, indicated by crackles in both lungs, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure. To address this, the nurse should decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider. Increasing the IV fluid rate would worsen fluid overload. Requesting colloidal or hypertonic IV solutions would exacerbate the issue by pulling more fluids into the intravascular space, leading to further volume overload.
4. What should the nurse do before an echocardiogram for a client who has had a myocardial infarction?
- A. Ensuring no food or drink for 4 hours before the procedure
- B. Obtaining informed consent from the client
- C. Assessing for any history of iodine or shellfish allergies
- D. Informing the client about the painless nature and duration of the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that the echocardiogram is a painless procedure that usually takes 30 to 60 minutes to complete. Echocardiography is a noninvasive, risk-free, and pain-free test that uses ultrasound to evaluate the heart's structure and motion. There is no need for special preparation before the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because imposing nothing-by-mouth status, obtaining informed consent, and assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish are not necessary steps before an echocardiogram.
5. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for
- A. hyperkalemia.
- B. hypermagnesemia.
- C. hypocalcemia.
- D. hypoglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.
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