HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse starts classes for clients with type 2 diabetes. Which information would the nurse use as an outcome evaluation for the class?
- A. Parking convenience for attendees continues to be a major concern.
- B. Fasting blood glucose average readings were 20% lower by the end of classes.
- C. Discussion of food exchanges and calories was a well-attended class.
- D. Demonstrating the use of a blood glucose meter was an effective teaching strategy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A reduction in fasting blood glucose levels indicates the effectiveness of the diabetes management education provided. Monitoring blood glucose levels is a crucial aspect of diabetes management, and a decrease in average readings signifies improvement in managing blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are not direct outcome evaluations related to the effectiveness of the education provided in managing diabetes. Parking convenience, attendance, and teaching strategies are not direct indicators of the impact on the clients' health outcomes.
2. In a community clinic where a recent case of tuberculosis (TB) has been diagnosed, which client who attended the clinic is at the highest risk for presenting with TB?
- A. a young adult who works as a daycare worker
- B. an adult who works in a corporate office
- C. an adolescent who attends the community high school
- D. an adult with a history of alcoholism and homelessness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Individuals who are homeless and have a history of alcoholism are at the highest risk for presenting with TB in this scenario. Homeless individuals often live in crowded conditions with poor ventilation, increasing the likelihood of TB transmission. Additionally, alcoholism can weaken the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to developing TB. The other options, such as a daycare worker, an office worker, or a high school student, do not inherently carry the same level of risk factors for TB transmission as being homeless with a history of alcoholism.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum calcium of 11 mg/dL.
- B. Serum phosphorus of 3 mg/dL.
- C. Serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL.
- D. Serum albumin of 4 g/dL.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum calcium level of 11 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia, which can be a complication of hyperparathyroidism and requires immediate intervention. Hypercalcemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias, renal failure, and neurologic symptoms. Monitoring and managing serum calcium levels are crucial in clients with hyperparathyroidism. Serum phosphorus, magnesium, and albumin levels are important to assess in clients with hyperparathyroidism, but they do not require immediate intervention as hypercalcemia poses a more urgent risk.
4. The healthcare professional is developing a health education program for adolescents on the dangers of smoking. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?
- A. showing graphic images of the effects of smoking
- B. inviting former smokers to share their experiences
- C. providing statistical data on smoking-related illnesses
- D. distributing pamphlets on smoking cessation resources
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Inviting former smokers to share their experiences is the most effective strategy because personal stories can have a powerful impact on adolescents and motivate them to avoid smoking. This approach makes the consequences of smoking more relatable and real, potentially influencing behavior change. Showing graphic images may be too harsh and could lead to desensitization or avoidance of the issue. Providing statistical data may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing pamphlets, while informative, may not have the same emotional impact as hearing real-life experiences.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
- B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.
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