hesi maternity 55 questions quizlet HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet

1. Using Nägele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery for a pregnant client who reports that the first day of her last menstrual period was August 2, 2006?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nägele's rule is used to estimate the date of delivery. It involves adding 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (August 2), which gives August 9. Then, subtracting 3 months from August 9, we arrive at May 9 of the following year as the estimated date of delivery. This makes choice B, 'May 9, 2007,' the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct calculation based on Nägele's rule.

2. The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.

3. After administering the varicella vaccine to a 5-year-old child, which instruction should the nurse provide the child’s parent?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After receiving the varicella vaccine, applying a cool pack to the injection site can help reduce discomfort. This intervention is a simple and effective way to manage local reactions at the site of the vaccination, providing comfort to the child and potentially reducing swelling or pain. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because chewable children’s aspirin is not typically recommended after vaccination, keeping the child home is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider, and monitoring fever alone is not the primary instruction post-varicella vaccination.

4. At 20 weeks gestation, a client is scheduled for an ultrasound. In preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse should explain that the primary reason for conducting this diagnostic study is to obtain which information?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary reason for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation is to assess fetal growth, gestational age, and anatomical development. This evaluation helps ensure the fetus is developing appropriately and can detect any potential issues that may require intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because at 20 weeks, the primary focus of the ultrasound is not to determine the sex of the fetus, detect chromosomal abnormalities, or assess the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. While these factors may be evaluated in pregnancy, they are not the primary reasons for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

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