HESI RN
Mental Health HESI
1. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client’s plan of care should include what priority problem?
- A. Acute confusion.
- B. Ineffective community coping.
- C. Disturbed sensory perception.
- D. Self-care deficit.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acute confusion is the priority problem because it directly impacts the client's safety and functioning. In this scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, which can pose immediate risks to her well-being. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit are not as urgent in this situation. Ineffective community coping focuses on the client's ability to manage stress related to the community, disturbed sensory perception pertains to alterations in sensory input, and self-care deficit involves the inability to perform activities of daily living independently. While these issues may also need addressing, acute confusion takes precedence due to the immediate safety concerns it presents.
2. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
- B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.
3. During a group session on anger management, a male adolescent client is fidgety, interrupts peers, and talks about his pets at home. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the client to leave and return in 10 minutes.
- B. Explore the client’s feelings about his pets and home life.
- C. Encourage his peers to help involve him in the activity.
- D. Redirect him by encouraging him to read from the handout.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best nursing action in this scenario is to redirect the client by encouraging him to read from the handout. This approach helps refocus the client's attention on the topic being discussed, which is anger management. Choice A is not appropriate as it may disrupt the group session and does not address the client's behavior. Choice B, while important in understanding the client's background, does not address the immediate disruptive behavior. Choice C involves others to manage the client's behavior instead of direct intervention by the nurse, which may not be effective in this situation.
4. A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?
- A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
- B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
- C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
- D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.
5. The nurse accepts a transfer to the mental health unit and understands that the client is distractible and is exhibiting a decreased ability to concentrate. The nurse has only 15 minutes to talk with the client. To develop a treatment plan for this client, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Motivation for treatment
- B. History of substance use
- C. Medication compliance
- D. Mental status examination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A mental status examination is the most important assessment for the nurse to obtain in this scenario. It provides a comprehensive view of the client's current cognitive functioning, including their level of alertness, orientation, memory, attention, and thought process. Understanding the client's mental status is crucial for developing an appropriate treatment plan. The other options, such as motivation for treatment, history of substance use, and medication compliance, are important aspects to consider but may not directly address the client's current cognitive state and immediate treatment needs as effectively as a mental status examination.
Similar Questions

Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99