HESI RN
Mental Health HESI
1. A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?
- A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
- B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
- C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
- D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.
2. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
- B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.
3. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
- B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
- C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.
4. A client with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16.5 and has been diagnosed with bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the RN be most concerned about?
- A. Body temperature of 96.8°F.
- B. Heart rate of 52 BPM.
- C. Serum potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L.
- D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with anorexia nervosa and bradycardia, monitoring for ECG changes is crucial as these changes may indicate potentially life-threatening cardiac complications. While other findings like low body temperature, bradycardia, and serum potassium levels are concerning, ECG changes specifically reflect the impact of bradycardia on the heart's electrical activity and should be the priority for the nurse to assess and address.
5. A client who is admitted to the mental health unit reports shortness of breath and dizziness. The client tells the nurse, “I feel like I’m going to die.†Which nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Mood disturbance
- B. Moderate anxiety
- C. Altered thoughts
- D. Social isolation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moderate anxiety. When a client presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath, dizziness, and a fear of dying, it indicates moderate anxiety. Anxiety can manifest physically with symptoms like these. Mood disturbance (choice A) refers to a change in mood, while altered thoughts (choice C) relate to cognitive changes. Social isolation (choice D) involves a lack of social interaction, which is not the primary concern in this scenario where the client is experiencing acute anxiety symptoms.
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