HESI RN
Mental Health HESI
1. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?
- A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
- B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
- C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.
2. A client is being treated for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Insomnia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insomnia. Insomnia is a common side effect of SSRIs, including those used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Educating the client about potential side effects like insomnia is crucial for managing expectations and promoting treatment adherence. Weight loss (choice A) is less common with SSRIs and might not be a primary concern for a client with GAD. Increased appetite (choice B) is also less likely with SSRIs. Dry mouth (choice D) is a side effect more commonly associated with other classes of medications, such as anticholinergics, rather than SSRIs.
3. What assessment questions should the nurse ask when attempting to determine a teenager’s mental health resilience? Select all that apply.
- A. How did you cope when your father deployed with the Army for a year in Iraq?
- B. Who did you go to for advice while your father was away for a year in Iraq?
- C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
- D. Where do you see yourself in 10 years?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The question 'How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?' is the most appropriate to assess the teenager's mental health resilience as it directly addresses their willingness to seek help and cope effectively. Choices A and B focus on coping mechanisms during a specific event, which may not reflect the teenager's overall resilience. Choice D is more related to future aspirations rather than assessing current mental health resilience.
4. A client with depression remains in bed most of the day, declines activities, and refuses meals. Which nursing problem has the greatest priority for this client?
- A. Loss of interest in diversional activities.
- B. Social isolation.
- C. Refusal to address nutritional needs.
- D. Low self-esteem.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Refusal to address nutritional needs.' In this scenario, the client's refusal to eat and address their nutritional needs poses an immediate threat to their physical health. Without proper nutrition, the client is at risk of malnutrition and its associated complications. While addressing social isolation, low self-esteem, and loss of interest in diversional activities are important aspects of holistic care for a client with depression, ensuring proper nutrition takes precedence due to the critical impact it has on the client's physical well-being. Therefore, the priority is to address the client's refusal to eat and address their nutritional needs to prevent further deterioration of their health.
5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?
- A. The client reports increased frequency of obsessive thoughts.
- B. The client demonstrates a decrease in compulsive behaviors.
- C. The client expresses a desire to leave therapy early.
- D. The client avoids participating in exposure tasks.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.
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