Free HESI Mental Health practice for Mental Health HESI (HESI RN). Answer 57 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on N
A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.
The RN is providing education about strategies for a safety plan for a female client who is a victim of intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (SOA)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Establishing a code with family and friends is crucial in situations of intimate partner violence as it allows discreet communication for help without alerting the abuser. Having a pre-prepared bag with essentials like extra clothes is important to facilitate a quick exit if necessary. Purchasing a gun is not a recommended safety strategy as it can escalate violence and pose more danger. While taking a self-defense course focused on protection is beneficial, it is essential to avoid courses that emphasize retaliation, as they can increase the risk and escalate violence.
Child protective services have removed 10-year-old Christopher from his parents' home due to neglect. Christopher reveals to the nurse that he considers the woman next door his 'nice' mom, that he loves school, and gets above-average grades. The strongest explanation of this response is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Resilience is the ability to adapt and cope with adverse situations. In this case, Christopher's positive outlook, love for school, and good academic performance despite experiencing neglect demonstrate resilience. Choice A, 'Temperament,' refers to an individual's natural behavioral style and would not fully explain Christopher's response. Genetic factors (Choice B) are not directly related to his ability to cope with neglect. Choice D, 'Paradoxical effects of neglect,' does not fit the situation as Christopher's positive response is more indicative of resilience than paradoxical effects.
A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.
When changing the dressing for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen, which approach should the RN use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct approach for the RN when changing the dressing for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen is to perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner. This approach helps maintain therapeutic rapport and respect for the client's situation. Choice A is incorrect because providing detailed and thorough explanations may not be as important as maintaining a non-judgmental attitude. Choice C is incorrect because asking why the client cut their own abdomen may come across as accusatory or threatening, which can be counterproductive in building trust. Choice D is incorrect because the RN should be equipped to handle the dressing change independently while ensuring a supportive and non-judgmental environment for the client.
A client on the mental health unit is becoming more agitated, shouting at the staff, and pacing in the hallway. When a PRN medication is offered, the client refuses the medication and defiantly sits on the floor in the middle of the unit hallway. What nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In situations where a client is agitated and refusing medication, a non-confrontational approach with additional staff can help de-escalate the situation and address the client's behavior safely. Transporting the client to the seclusion room (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention unless the client poses an immediate risk of harm to themselves or others. Taking other clients to the client lounge (Choice C) does not directly address the agitated client's behavior. Administering medication to chemically restrain the client (Choice D) should only be considered after other de-escalation attempts have been made and if there is a significant safety concern.
A mental health worker is caring for a client with escalating aggressive behavior. Which action by the mental health worker warrants immediate intervention by the RN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Attempting to physically restrain the client without proper protocol and preparation can escalate the situation. This can lead to increased agitation and aggression in the client, potentially putting both the client and the mental health worker at risk. Remaining at a distance, directing the client to a quiet area, or using a loud voice are all strategies that can be used to de-escalate the situation and ensure safety without resorting to physical intervention. Therefore, the immediate intervention is needed when the mental health worker attempts to physically restrain the client. Option B, remaining at a distance, is a safe practice to ensure personal safety. Option C, directing the client to a quiet area, is a de-escalation technique to create a calmer environment. Option D, using a loud voice, may be necessary to establish boundaries and ensure the client can hear instructions clearly.
Which factors tend to increase the difficulty of diagnosing young children who demonstrate behaviors associated with mental illness? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Level of cognitive development. The level of cognitive development is a crucial factor that can complicate the diagnosis of mental illness in young children. Young children may not have fully developed cognitive abilities to express their symptoms or understand diagnostic procedures, making it challenging for healthcare providers to assess their mental health accurately. Limited language skills (choice A) can hinder communication but are not as significant as cognitive development in diagnosing mental illness. Emotional development (choice C) is important but may not be as directly linked to the diagnostic challenges as cognitive development. Parental denial (choice D), although a potential barrier, is not a factor inherent to the child's characteristics affecting the diagnostic process.
The nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is exhibiting symptoms of paranoia. Which behavior would the nurse most likely observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with paranoia, they typically exhibit an intense fear of being harmed, persecuted, or targeted by others. This fear often dominates their thoughts and can significantly impact their daily functioning and interactions. Choice A, being unmotivated and withdrawn, is more indicative of negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as avolition and social withdrawal. Choice C, displaying a blunted affect and lacking emotional response, is associated with flat affect, a symptom commonly seen in schizophrenia but not specific to paranoia. Choice D, avoiding group activities and showing decreased appetite, may be related to various symptoms or side effects, but it is not a defining characteristic of paranoia in schizophrenia.
To evaluate the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral techniques, which client outcomes should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Cognitive-behavioral therapy focuses on changing thought patterns by guiding the client to engage in problem-solving strategies to address the current situation. This approach helps individuals modify negative thinking patterns and develop more adaptive ways to cope with challenges. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they may be important aspects to consider in therapy, the primary focus in cognitive-behavioral therapy is on identifying and changing negative thought patterns rather than exploring relationships or family problem-solving skills.
The RN is admitting a male client who takes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) twice a day. Which information should the RN report to the HCP immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nausea and vomiting are signs of potential lithium toxicity, which is a serious condition requiring immediate attention. These symptoms can indicate a dangerous level of lithium in the body that can lead to severe complications. Short-term memory loss (A), five-pound weight gain (B), and decreased affect (C) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as symptoms of potential toxicity like nausea and vomiting.
Which actions are likely to help promote the self-esteem of a male client with major depression?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Including the client in determining the treatment protocol is the most suitable action to promote the self-esteem of a male client with major depression. This approach empowers the client, involves him in decision-making regarding his care, and fosters a sense of control and self-worth. Option A, asking about his long-term goals, may not directly address his immediate self-esteem needs related to his current condition. Option B, discussing the challenges of his medical condition, may inadvertently focus on negative aspects and potentially lower self-esteem. Option D, encouraging engagement in recreational therapy, is beneficial but may not directly address the client's sense of control and self-worth in decision-making related to his treatment.
A client who recently experienced the death of a significant other arrives at the mental health center. The client reports loss of interest in usual activities, expresses a wish to be with the deceased significant other, has been eating very little, and has not slept in several days. Which client statement is most important for the RN to explore at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important client statement for the RN to explore in this scenario is the client not sleeping for several days. The lack of sleep is a critical indicator of possible severe depression or suicidal ideation that requires immediate attention. While expressing a wish to be with the deceased significant other, having a lack of interest in usual activities, and eating very little are concerning, the immediate focus should be on the client's severe sleep disturbance as it can pose an immediate risk to their well-being and safety.
What assessment question will provide healthcare providers with information regarding the effects of a woman's circadian rhythms on her quality of life?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asking about the amount of sleep a woman gets each night is crucial in understanding her circadian rhythms and how they may affect her quality of life. Circadian rhythms are the body's internal clock that regulates the sleep-wake cycle. Monitoring sleep patterns can provide insights into how well these rhythms are functioning and impacting daily life. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated to circadian rhythms and do not directly assess the effects of these rhythms on quality of life.
A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.
What should the nurse initially assess when a high school girl reveals engaging in self-induced vomiting as a weight-control measure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is assessing the frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors. This assessment is crucial in understanding the severity of the eating disorder and developing an appropriate treatment plan. Options A, C, and D are not the initial priority when dealing with a student engaging in harmful behaviors related to eating disorders. While weight and height, family relationships, and academic performance are important aspects to consider, the immediate focus should be on evaluating the behaviors directly linked to the reported issue.
The RN is teaching a client about the initiation of the prescribed abstinence therapy using disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: "Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose." It is essential for the client to understand the importance of abstaining from alcohol for at least 12 hours before starting disulfiram to prevent potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because disulfiram is specifically used to deter alcohol consumption, not heroin or cocaine use. Choice C is not directly related to the initiation of disulfiram therapy and attending AA meetings is not a requirement for taking disulfiram. Choice D is irrelevant and unnecessary for the initiation of disulfiram therapy.
A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.
A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.
An antidepressant medication is prescribed for a client who reports sleeping only 4 hours in the past 2 days and weight loss of 9 lbs within the last month. Which client goal is most important to achieve within the first three days of treatment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important goal to achieve within the first three days of treatment is to ensure the client can sleep at least 6 hours a night. Adequate sleep is essential for stabilizing mood and improving overall functioning. Improving sleep patterns is crucial to address the reported sleep deficit and weight loss associated with depression. Choice A is not as urgent as improving sleep patterns. Choice C is important but not as immediate as addressing the sleep deficit. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate treatment goal of improving sleep and managing symptoms of depression.
A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client presents with signs of distress and potential safety concerns, the priority is to provide a safe environment. Offering a safe place to relax can help the client feel secure and ready for further assessment and support. This action allows the nurse to establish rapport, ensure the client's immediate safety, and create a trusting relationship before delving into the details of the situation. Asking the client to describe why she is being stalked (Choice B) may exacerbate her distress and should come after ensuring her safety. Recommending that the client talk with a social worker (Choice C) is important but should follow immediate safety measures. Assuring the client that the healthcare provider will see her today (Choice D) is less critical than addressing her safety concerns and emotional state.
A client is being educated by a nurse about strategies for a safety plan for intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct strategies for a safety plan for a victim of intimate partner violence include having a bag ready with essentials for self and children and establishing a code with family and friends to signal danger. These strategies can help the client prepare for emergencies and seek help discreetly. Purchasing a gun (Choice C) is not a safe or recommended strategy as it can escalate violence and pose more significant risks. Additionally, taking a self-defense course focused on self-protection (Choice D) is important for self-defense, but it should not involve retaliatory actions against the abuser with the intent to cause harm.
When developing a plan of care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit following aspiration of a caustic material related to a suicide attempt, which nursing problem has the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ineffective breathing pattern is the highest priority nursing problem in this scenario because aspiration of a caustic material can lead to serious airway and respiratory issues. This poses an immediate threat to the client's life and requires urgent intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation. The other options, such as Impaired comfort, Risk for injury, and Ineffective coping, are important but are secondary concerns compared to the critical nature of respiratory compromise in this situation.
A client tells the RN that he has an IQ of 400+ and is a genius and an inventor. He also reports that he is married to a female movie star and thinks that his brother wants a sexual relationship with her. What is the priority nursing problem for admission to the psychiatric unit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing problem for admission to the psychiatric unit is 'Disturbed sensory perception.' This choice is correct because the client's delusional beliefs about having an IQ of 400+, being a genius and an inventor, being married to a movie star, and suspecting his brother of wanting a sexual relationship with her indicate a significant disturbance in sensory perception. The client's perceptions are not based in reality, indicating a need for immediate intervention to address these distorted beliefs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: 'Ineffective sexual patterns' is not the priority as the client's delusions go beyond just sexual relationships, 'Impaired environmental interpretation' does not capture the primary issue of distorted perceptions, and 'Compromised family coping' is not the priority concern in this scenario compared to the severe sensory perception disturbances displayed by the client.
A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.
A female client engages in repeated checks of door and window locks, behavior that prevents her from arriving on time and interferes with her ability to function effectively. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why she checks the locks. By doing so, the nurse can help the client gain insight into the underlying anxiety that drives this behavior and assist her in developing new adaptive coping strategies. Choice A is not as effective as directly asking the client about her behavior. Choice C focuses on planning activities but does not address the root cause of the client's behavior. Choice D is irrelevant to addressing the client's repeated checking behavior.
Pablo is a homeless adult who has no family connections. Pablo passed out on the street, and emergency medical services took him to the hospital where he expresses a wish to die. The physician recognizes evidence of substance use problems and mental health issues and recommends inpatient treatment for Pablo. What is the rationale for this treatment choice? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. In inpatient settings, there is continuous supervision available, ensuring safety and comprehensive care for individuals like Pablo who may be at risk due to substance use problems, mental health issues, and expressing a wish to die. Choice B is incorrect because the need for stabilization of multiple symptoms alone is not the primary rationale for inpatient treatment. Choice C is incorrect as although self-care and nutritional needs are important, they do not solely justify inpatient treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while medication adherence can be monitored in inpatient settings, it is not the primary rationale for choosing inpatient treatment for Pablo in this scenario.
The nurse is completing the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of depression. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL is critically low and requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider as it indicates a potential electrolyte imbalance, which can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and other complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges or not indicative of immediate life-threatening issues. A body mass index of 21 may be considered normal for some individuals, a WBC count of 10,000/mm3 is slightly elevated but not an urgent concern, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits for an adolescent.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which symptom should the healthcare professional expect to find?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Persistent thoughts about the trauma. In post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), individuals often experience persistent intrusive thoughts about the traumatic event, which can be distressing and disruptive. This symptom is a hallmark feature of PTSD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, enthusiasm, decreased need for sleep, increased appetite, and weight gain are not typical symptoms of PTSD. Instead, individuals with PTSD may commonly experience symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, hypervigilance, avoidance of triggers related to the trauma, and negative changes in mood and cognition.
A male client comes to the emergency center with an erection that will not resolve. The client reports that he is taking trazodone (Desyrel) for insomnia. Which information is most important for the nurse to ask this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the most important question for the nurse to ask the client is whether he is experiencing any other sexual dysfunctions or problems. This inquiry is crucial as it can help in determining if the persistent erection is a side effect of trazodone. Asking about medication for erectile dysfunction (Choice A) may not provide relevant information in this case, as the focus is on the potential side effects of trazodone. Inquiring about the last time the client consumed alcohol (Choice C) is not directly related to the situation at hand. Questioning about a history of angina or high blood pressure (Choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concern of the persistent erection potentially caused by trazodone.
A mental health worker (MHW) is caring for a client with escalating aggressive behavior. Which action by the MHW warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Attempting to physically restrain the client. Physical restraint should only be performed by trained professionals in a safe manner to prevent harm to the client and staff. In this scenario, the mental health worker should not attempt physical restraint, as it can escalate the situation and potentially lead to harm. Choices B, C, and D do not pose an immediate risk and can be part of de-escalation strategies. Choice B suggests guiding the client to a quiet area, choice C involves using a loud voice for better communication, and choice D indicates maintaining a safe distance, which are appropriate interventions to manage escalating aggressive behavior.
A female client engages in repeated checks of door and window locks, a behavior that prevents her from arriving on time and interferes with her ability to function effectively. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Planning a list of daily activities can help the client manage her time better and reduce the impact of her compulsive behaviors. This structured approach can assist the client in organizing her day, potentially reducing the need for excessive lock checking. Option A is incorrect because simply asking why the client checks the locks may not address the underlying issue effectively. Option B is not relevant to the compulsive behavior of checking locks and does not offer a practical solution. Option C does not directly address the client's compulsive behavior but focuses on the physical attributes of the locks, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.
A client with an eating disorder is being treated in a behavioral health unit. Which behavior would the nurse expect to see if the client is responding positively to the treatment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A positive response to treatment for a client with an eating disorder is indicated by adherence to the treatment plan and an increase in self-care activities. These behaviors show that the client is actively engaging in their treatment and taking steps towards recovery. Option B, increased isolation from others, is not indicative of a positive response to treatment as it may suggest withdrawal or avoidance. Option C, frequent complaining about treatment procedures, is not a behavior that signifies a positive response; it may indicate dissatisfaction or discomfort with the treatment. Option D, refusal to eat meals provided by the unit, is also not a positive response as it could suggest continued resistance to treatment and potential worsening of symptoms.
Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client's blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.
The nurse completes an assessment of a client who is experiencing intimate partner violence (IPV). Which finding of the injuries should the nurse include in the documentation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases of intimate partner violence (IPV), documenting injuries is essential for legal and medical purposes. Photographs provide concrete and objective evidence of the injuries, leaving no room for interpretation or doubt. This visual documentation can be crucial in legal proceedings and serve as a critical component in ensuring the safety and well-being of the client. The significant other's statement (Choice A) may not accurately reflect the client's injuries and could be biased. A general description (Choice C) lacks the specificity and objectivity that photographs offer. Summarizing the client's feelings (Choice D) is important for emotional support but does not provide the concrete evidence needed in documenting IPV cases.
The client is preparing to discontinue the use of a sedative-hypnotic medication. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When discontinuing sedative-hypnotic medications, it is crucial to gradually taper them off to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because withdrawal symptoms can be severe, not always mild. Choice C is incorrect as increasing caffeine intake can exacerbate sleep disturbances. Choice D is incorrect because changes in sleep patterns are expected during discontinuation of sedative-hypnotic medications.
A client with schizophrenia is being discharged home after an extended stay in a psychiatric hospital. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching about medication management is needed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. This statement indicates a lack of understanding about medication management for schizophrenia. Medications for schizophrenia should be taken consistently as prescribed for optimal effectiveness, regardless of how the client feels. Choice B is a correct statement as regular follow-up with a psychiatrist is important for monitoring progress and adjusting treatment. Choice C demonstrates good awareness of potential side effects and the need for communication with healthcare providers. Choice D reflects appropriate knowledge as alcohol can interact with medications and may reduce their effectiveness.
A male client with known auditory hallucinations begins talking loudly and gesturing wildly while in the unit's day room. What action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When dealing with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, it is crucial for the nurse to first listen to what the client is saying. Auditory hallucinations may hold significance to the client, and by actively listening, the nurse can gather information about the content and context of the hallucinations. This information helps the nurse assess the client's current state, emotional responses, and the potential triggers for the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial action as it may suppress important information and feelings the client is trying to communicate. Sitting next to the client (Choice B) may not be appropriate without understanding the situation better. Escorting the client to his room (Choice C) may escalate the situation without addressing the underlying cause of the behavior, which can be better understood through active listening.
A healthcare provider is evaluating a client's response to a new antianxiety medication. Which client statement indicates a positive response to the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: "I feel more relaxed and less anxious." A positive response to antianxiety medication is characterized by reduced anxiety and increased relaxation. Choice B, which mentions sleeping less and feeling more energetic, suggests potential side effects rather than a positive response to the medication. Choice C indicates no change in anxiety levels, which is not indicative of a positive response. Choice D, mentioning difficulty concentrating, is also a sign of a negative response to antianxiety medication as it may suggest cognitive impairment.
A healthcare professional is preparing to provide medication education to a client who has just been prescribed an antipsychotic medication. What should the healthcare professional include in the teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Antipsychotic medications often have anticholinergic side effects like dry mouth and blurred vision. Teaching the client about these potential side effects is essential for their understanding and management. Regular eye exams (Choice A) are not specifically related to antipsychotic medications. While avoiding caffeine (Choice B) might be a general good practice, it is not a specific side effect of antipsychotic medications. Increasing vitamin C intake (Choice D) is not a standard recommendation for preventing antipsychotic medication side effects.
A middle-aged female client with no previous psychiatric history is seen in the mental health clinic because her family describes her as having paranoid thoughts. On assessment, she tells the nurse, "I want to find out why these people are stalking me." Which response should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response for the nurse to provide is option A: 'It sounds like this experience is frightening for you.' This response acknowledges the client's feelings and emotions without directly challenging the delusion of being stalked. Option B is incorrect as it directly questions the client's belief, which can lead to increased defensiveness. Option C is incorrect as it denies the client's belief without addressing the underlying fear and can cause the client to feel misunderstood. Option D is incorrect as it directly asks about harm, which may not be the primary concern of the client at this moment.
A male client with schizophrenia is being discharged from the psychiatric unit after being stabilized with antipsychotic medications. What is the most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a male client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized with antipsychotic medications is to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed. Medication adherence is crucial in managing schizophrenia, preventing relapse, and maintaining stability. While seeing the psychiatrist regularly (Choice A) is important, adherence to medication is more critical for the client's immediate well-being. Avoiding caffeine and alcohol (Choice C) may be beneficial but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Daily exercise (Choice D) is important for overall health but is not the most critical instruction for managing schizophrenia.
A client is admitted for bipolar disorder and alcohol withdrawal, depressive phase. Based on which assessment finding will the RN withhold the clonidine (Catapres) prescription?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the correct answer is A. Clonidine, such as Catapres, is a medication that can lower blood pressure. Therefore, if a client has low blood pressure readings, like 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg, the registered nurse should withhold the clonidine prescription to prevent further lowering of blood pressure which could lead to adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are within normal ranges and do not present a contraindication for the administration of clonidine in this context.
The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital. The employee states, "I can't believe this. What should I do?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a crisis situation where the female employee's child is involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide immediate practical assistance. Calling for transportation to the hospital ensures that the employee can quickly reach her child in need of urgent medical attention. The other options (A, B, and C) do not address the immediate need for assistance and may not provide the necessary support required in such a critical situation.
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is receiving a new prescription for fluoxetine (Prozac). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can help manage symptoms of OCD by assisting in controlling compulsive behaviors rather than directly reducing anxiety. The improvement in symptoms usually occurs over a few weeks. Choice A is incorrect as it provides a timeframe for anxiety improvement, which is not the primary goal of fluoxetine in OCD treatment. Choice C is incorrect as routine blood tests are not typically required with fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-containing foods is more relevant for MAOIs, not SSRIs like fluoxetine.
The nurse is using the CAGE questionnaire as a screening tool for a client who is seeking help because his wife said he had a drinking problem. What information should the nurse explore in-depth with the client based on this screening tool?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The CAGE questionnaire focuses on the client's self-perception and behaviors related to drinking, such as efforts to cut down and guilt.
A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client's plan of care should include what priority problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acute confusion is the priority problem because it directly impacts the client's safety and functioning. In this scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, which can pose immediate risks to her well-being. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit are not as urgent in this situation. Ineffective community coping focuses on the client's ability to manage stress related to the community, disturbed sensory perception pertains to alterations in sensory input, and self-care deficit involves the inability to perform activities of daily living independently. While these issues may also need addressing, acute confusion takes precedence due to the immediate safety concerns it presents.
A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra antianxiety medication because, "I'm so stressed out. I just wanted to go sleep." The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's statement of not wanting to talk and feeling that nothing matters anymore is indicative of severe depression or a risk for self-harm. This warrants immediate attention and one-on-one observation to ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and C do not express the same level of concerning behavior and do not imply an immediate risk to the client's well-being.
A client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt is being discharged from the hospital. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further follow-up?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. When a client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt states, "I feel that I am completely recovered now," it indicates a need for further follow-up. This statement suggests a potential lack of insight into the ongoing nature of depression and may lead to discontinuation of necessary treatment and support. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate positive and proactive attitudes towards managing depression and suicidal ideation, indicating a willingness to engage in treatment, therapy, and self-care practices.
A male veteran who recently returned from a war zone has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is admitted to the psychiatric ward due to admitted suicidal ideation. On admission, the client's family informed the healthcare provider that therapy sessions did not seem to be helping. Select only one intervention that has the highest priority.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The highest priority intervention in this scenario is to ensure the safety of the client who is admitted due to suicidal ideation. Removing all shaving equipment is crucial to prevent self-harm or suicide attempts using sharp objects. Administering medication or developing a list of therapy programs can be important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Determining if the client has a suicide plan is also essential but not as urgent as removing potential means for self-harm.
During a group session on anger management, a male adolescent client is fidgety, interrupts peers, and talks about his pets at home. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best nursing action in this scenario is to redirect the client by encouraging him to read from the handout. This approach helps refocus the client's attention on the topic being discussed, which is anger management. Choice A is not appropriate as it may disrupt the group session and does not address the client's behavior. Choice B, while important in understanding the client's background, does not address the immediate disruptive behavior. Choice C involves others to manage the client's behavior instead of direct intervention by the nurse, which may not be effective in this situation.
A female high school teacher who was a child of alcoholic parents seeks counseling at the community health clinic because of depression over a student who was killed by a drunk driver. After several weeks of counseling, which client behavior is the best indicator that the client is coping well with anxiety related to the student's death?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Becoming the faculty sponsor for Students Against Drunk Driving (SADD) is the best indicator that the client is coping well with anxiety related to the student's death. This choice demonstrates active involvement in preventing similar tragedies, showing that the client is channeling her emotions into positive action and advocacy. Option A, signing a safety contract, is important for safety but does not directly address coping with the anxiety related to the student's death. Option B, confronting her parents about past hurt, may be beneficial for personal growth but does not directly reflect coping with the current situation. Option D, describing feelings in detail, is a positive step in therapy but does not necessarily indicate coping well with the anxiety related to the student's death.
A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a literally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. The client's symptoms of body contortion and feeling like a monster are indicative of acute dystonia, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. Benztropine can help alleviate these acute dystonic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because changing the antipsychotic medication at this point is not indicated. Choice B is not appropriate as the client's symptoms are likely due to acute dystonia rather than muscle spasms. Choice C is also not the best course of action as the client needs immediate intervention for the acute dystonic reaction.
A client with a recent diagnosis of bipolar disorder is attending a support group for the first time. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further education about the disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because it shows a misconception about bipolar disorder treatment. Stopping medications when feeling better can lead to a relapse or worsening of symptoms. Choice A is correct because medication adherence is crucial in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is also a good strategy as stress management is important in symptom control. Choice D is a proactive approach to self-awareness and can help in recognizing early signs of mood changes.
April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April's mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.' In this scenario, the excessive use of time-out, up to 20 times a day, indicates that it is no longer effective in helping April self-reflect and control her behavior. Constant use of time-out without achieving the desired outcome suggests the need for alternative therapeutic interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the situation described indicates that time-out is not serving its intended purpose. Choice C is also incorrect as the behavior is not driven by a desire for alone time. Choice D is incorrect and inappropriate as seclusion and restraint should only be considered as a last resort and are not indicated based on the information provided.
The healthcare professional is developing a discharge plan for a client recovering from alcohol withdrawal. Which instruction should be included in the client's discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is essential to include instructions for the client to contact a support group like Alcoholics Anonymous in their discharge teaching. Support groups play a vital role in providing ongoing support, guidance, and encouragement during the recovery process from alcohol withdrawal, helping to prevent relapse. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding all social situations involving alcohol may not be practical or sustainable in the long term. Choice B is important but is not specific to the client's alcohol recovery needs. Choice D is not the top priority compared to the importance of connecting with a support group for ongoing assistance and accountability.
A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, "My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!" The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Projection. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own feelings of anger onto his roommate by attributing his anger to the roommate. Projection involves shifting one's feelings, thoughts, or impulses onto another person. Denial (choice A) is the refusal to accept reality, Rationalization (choice C) involves justifying behaviors with logical reasons, and Splitting (choice D) is the inability to integrate positive and negative qualities of oneself or others.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.