HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
- C. Call the healthcare provider
- D. Check the client's oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin is the first-line treatment for chest pain related to coronary artery disease. It helps dilate the coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart, providing immediate relief from ischemia. Administering nitroglycerin promptly can help alleviate the chest pain and prevent further complications. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important but should not delay the administration of nitroglycerin. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice C) can be done after initiating immediate treatment. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice D) is relevant but not the first action to take in this scenario.
2. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
- B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
- C. Recent history of smoking.
- D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.
3. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?
- A. Medicaid
- B. Medicare
- C. COBRA
- D. Private insurance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medicare. Medicare is the federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, so it is the most suitable option for the 66-year-old woman retiring. Medicaid (choice A) is a state and federally funded program for low-income individuals and families, not specifically for retirees. COBRA (choice C) allows employees to continue their employer-sponsored health insurance for a limited time after leaving employment. Private insurance (choice D) refers to health insurance plans purchased directly from private insurance companies.
4. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
- B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
- D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and further complications. A productive cough with yellow sputum is common in pneumonia but may not require immediate intervention unless it worsens or is associated with other concerning symptoms. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range, indicating adequate ventilation. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is also within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention unless it is accompanied by other abnormal findings.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus presents with a blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL. What is the nurse's initial action?
- A. Administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed
- B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
- C. Provide the client with a carbohydrate snack
- D. Assess the client for signs of hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a high blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL, the nurse's initial action should be to administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed. The priority is to bring down the elevated glucose level promptly to prevent further complications. Encouraging the client to drink fluids or providing a carbohydrate snack would not effectively address the elevated blood sugar level in this scenario. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is not appropriate as the client's blood sugar level is high, not low.
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