HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea. What should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
- B. Offer the client small, frequent meals.
- C. Provide the client with crackers and water.
- D. Encourage the client to eat a bland diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic as prescribed. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea, the priority action is to administer an antiemetic medication as prescribed. Antiemetics help alleviate nausea and prevent complications associated with chemotherapy, such as dehydration and malnutrition. Options B, C, and D focus on dietary interventions which can be helpful but addressing the severe nausea with antiemetic medication takes precedence to provide immediate relief and ensure the client's comfort and well-being.
2. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
- B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
- C. Recent history of smoking.
- D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Calcium level
- B. Sodium level
- C. Magnesium level
- D. Potassium level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. While calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are important in various conditions and treatments, they are not the primary electrolyte affected by furosemide.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. The client refuses to take medication and states 'I don't think I need those medications. They make me too sleepy and drowsy. I insist that you explain their use and side effects.' The nurse should understand that
- A. A referral is needed to the psychiatrist who is to provide the client with answers
- B. The client has a right to know about the prescribed medications
- C. Such education is an independent decision of the individual nurse whether or not to teach clients about their medications
- D. Clients with schizophrenia are at a higher risk of psychosocial complications when they know about their medication side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client has a legal right to be informed about their treatment, including medication uses and side effects, as part of informed consent. This helps ensure that the client can make an informed decision about their care. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse can provide the client with information about their medications. Choice C is incorrect as it is not an independent decision of the nurse but a professional responsibility to educate clients. Choice D is incorrect as knowledge about medication side effects can actually empower clients to manage their condition effectively.
5. During the admission assessment of a 3-year-old with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus, which assessment finding is evidence of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
- A. Low blood pressure
- B. Increased respiratory rate
- C. Normal pupil reaction
- D. Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a child with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus. This finding suggests that the optic nerve is being compressed due to increased ICP, causing a delay in pupillary reactions. Such a delay is a critical sign of worsening ICP and necessitates immediate intervention. Low blood pressure and increased respiratory rate can occur in various conditions but are less specific to increased ICP than sluggish and unequal pupillary responses, which directly reflect neurological compromise.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $89
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99