HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?
- A. Decreased liver enzymes.
- B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
- C. High bilirubin levels.
- D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.
2. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only.
- B. Offer oral rehydration solution every 2 hours.
- C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
- D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving supplemental oxygen. The client reports feeling short of breath and has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Administer a bronchodilator
- D. Elevate the head of the bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation, making it the priority intervention for a client with shortness of breath. This position helps in maximizing lung expansion and aiding ventilation-perfusion matching in patients with COPD. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary but should come after optimizing the client's positioning. Notifying the healthcare provider and administering a bronchodilator are not the initial interventions for addressing shortness of breath in a client with COPD.
4. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
- B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- C. Assess the client's lung sounds.
- D. Reposition the client to relieve dyspnea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing worsening dyspnea, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. This helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Administering a diuretic (Choice B) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation comes first. While assessing lung sounds (Choice C) is important, it is not the immediate priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation.
5. A client's chest tube insertion site has crepitus (crackling sensation) upon palpation. What is the nurse's next step?
- A. Apply a pressure dressing to the chest tube site.
- B. Administer an oral antihistamine.
- C. Assess the client for allergies to cleaning agents.
- D. Measure the area of swelling and crackling.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to measure the area of crepitus. Crepitus indicates subcutaneous emphysema, which is a serious condition requiring monitoring. Applying a pressure dressing (Choice A) could worsen the condition by trapping air under the skin. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice B) is not indicated for crepitus. Assessing for allergies to cleaning agents (Choice C) is not the priority when dealing with crepitus and subcutaneous emphysema.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access