what are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

2. A client with hyperkalemia is receiving insulin and glucose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. When administering insulin and glucose in hyperkalemia, the aim is to shift potassium from the bloodstream into the cells, lowering elevated levels. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels closely is essential to prevent hypokalemia or further complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Monitoring sodium (Choice B) and calcium levels (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of hyperkalemia with insulin and glucose.

3. A client with dysphagia is having difficulty swallowing medications. What is the nurse's best intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best intervention for a client with dysphagia experiencing difficulty swallowing medications is to consult with the healthcare provider about switching to liquid medications. Liquid medications are often easier to swallow and can reduce the risk of choking and aspiration in clients with dysphagia. Crushing medications can alter their effectiveness, encouraging the client to drink water may not be sufficient, and offering soft foods is not directly related to improving medication swallowing.

4. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

5. A client with hypertension has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Calcium channel blockers can cause bradycardia, so it is important for the client to monitor their heart rate regularly. This helps detect any significant changes in heart rate that may require medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to avoid potassium-rich foods with calcium channel blockers. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fluid intake is not specifically related to calcium channel blockers. Choice D is incorrect as calcium channel blockers are usually taken with or without food, depending on the specific medication, but not specifically on an empty stomach.

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