what are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

2. Before administering digoxin to a client with heart failure, what is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's heart rate. Digoxin slows the heart rate, so it is crucial to assess the heart rate before administering the medication. If the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute, the dose should be held, and the healthcare provider should be notified. Checking the blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring the heart rate in this case. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice C) is not directly related to the action of digoxin. Reviewing the client's potassium level (Choice D) is important for clients taking digoxin due to the risk of hypokalemia, but assessing the heart rate takes priority.

3. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

4. A client at 12 weeks gestation is admitted to the antepartum unit with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum, characterized by severe nausea and vomiting, leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is initiating IV fluids to correct these imbalances. Providing emotional support is important for the client's well-being, but addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Monitoring daily weight and encouraging small frequent meals are beneficial interventions but are not the priority when managing hyperemesis gravidarum.

5. The nurse is conducting diet teaching for a client diagnosed with hypertension. Which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fresh or frozen vegetables without sauce. These foods are low in sodium, which is crucial for managing hypertension. Pickled olives (choice A) and canned soup (choice B) are high in sodium, which can exacerbate hypertension. While fruits without sauce (choice D) are generally healthy, emphasizing vegetables is more beneficial for hypertension due to their lower sodium content.

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